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Defending the Faith Discussion of Apologetical Issues with Unbelievers and Unorthodox groups
always ready to give a defense to everyone who asks you a reason for the hope in you, with meekness and fear (1 Pe. 3:15)

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  #41 (permalink)  
Old 07-24-2008, 01:26 PM
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Well I would first point out that non-theistic options are prima facia absurd and collapse quickly. Then the next step is to use natural revelation to point out the need for redemption from the wrath that is to come for sinners. Then you just ask a competitor to Christianity, what is their gospel. All competing Gospels are not consistent with general revelation.

You can add odds and ends to the end, but that is pretty much the core of a successful counter.

CT
I think we're getting somewhere!

Now, do you think it's acceptable for someone to accept some kind of belief system that is not in written form? If it's extremely similar to Christianity (belief in triune theism, a sensus divinitatis, a sense of fallenness and consequent need of redemption by grace, etc.), is there any possible outlet for the unbeliever, or is he simply professing belief in Christianity without using the word "Christianity"?

Is there some fatal flaw that applies to all abstract systems like these? Are they just masks for actual human autonomy?
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  #42 (permalink)  
Old 07-24-2008, 01:57 PM
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Well I would first point out that non-theistic options are prima facia absurd and collapse quickly. Then the next step is to use natural revelation to point out the need for redemption from the wrath that is to come for sinners. Then you just ask a competitor to Christianity, what is their gospel. All competing Gospels are not consistent with general revelation.

You can add odds and ends to the end, but that is pretty much the core of a successful counter.

CT
I think we're getting somewhere!

Now, do you think it's acceptable for someone to accept some kind of belief system that is not in written form?
If it is not in written form then they need to show it from general revelation. (Even if it is written, it still has to reconcile with general revelation)

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If it's extremely similar to Christianity (belief in triune theism, a sensus divinitatis, a sense of fallenness and consequent need of redemption by grace, etc.), is there any possible outlet for the unbeliever, or is he simply professing belief in Christianity without using the word "Christianity"?
It might be helpful to think of the reasons for unbelief. It mainly comes down to saying that man is inherently good or at least good enough to satisfy any standard set before them. Once one gives up that, then the need for something other than Christianity goes out the window.

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Is there some fatal flaw that applies to all abstract systems like these? Are they just masks for actual human autonomy?
Yes, the fatal flaw is the need to remove the need for redemption, that you cannot fulfill.

An interesting line of philosophical thought is the relationship between God and abstract objects/thoughts/possibilities.

CT
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  #43 (permalink)  
Old 07-24-2008, 02:15 PM
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Yes, the fatal flaw is the need to remove the need for redemption, that you cannot fulfill.
Why is an unfulfilled need of redemption a fatal flaw?
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Old 07-24-2008, 02:23 PM
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Yes, the fatal flaw is the need to remove the need for redemption, that you cannot fulfill.
Why is an unfulfilled need of redemption a fatal flaw?
It is like being required to make a square circle.

CT
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  #45 (permalink)  
Old 07-24-2008, 02:32 PM
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Yes, the fatal flaw is the need to remove the need for redemption, that you cannot fulfill.
Why is an unfulfilled need of redemption a fatal flaw?
It is like being required to make a square circle.

CT
So if someone's worldview is that all mankind is hopelessly fallen and doomed for eternal punishment, but the worldview doesn't give a means to overcome this (even if by grace), then the worldview logically contradicts itself?
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"What is more, I consider everything a loss compared to the surpassing greatness of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord, for whose sake I have lost all things. I consider them rubbish, that I may gain Christ." - Philippians 3:8
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  #46 (permalink)  
Old 07-24-2008, 03:11 PM
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Why is an unfulfilled need of redemption a fatal flaw?
It is like being required to make a square circle.

CT
So if someone's worldview is that all mankind is hopelessly fallen and doomed for eternal punishment, but the worldview doesn't give a means to overcome this (even if by grace), then the worldview logically contradicts itself?
There are no theistic worldviews that don't attempt to give a way of redemption. My comment about fatal flaw was that they will give a way of redemption that somehow puts man in the center as if man could earn redemption, while man in fact could only possibly do what is required of him from here on out, instead of making up for the evil that they do/will do. It is inconsistent with God's revealed infinite justice.

One could state the fatal flaw as putting God's mercy over against his justice.

CT
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  #47 (permalink)  
Old 07-24-2008, 03:16 PM
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It is like being required to make a square circle.

CT
So if someone's worldview is that all mankind is hopelessly fallen and doomed for eternal punishment, but the worldview doesn't give a means to overcome this (even if by grace), then the worldview logically contradicts itself?
There are no theistic worldviews that don't attempt to give a way of redemption. My comment about fatal flaw was that they will give a way of redemption that somehow puts man in the center as if man could earn redemption, while man in fact could only possibly do what is required of him from here on out, instead of making up for the evil that they do/will do. It is inconsistent with God's revealed infinite justice.

One could state the fatal flaw as putting God's mercy over against his justice.

CT
I'm not sure exactly what you're saying -- how do you demonstrate that a works-based salvation is inconsistent with God's revealed justice?
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"What is more, I consider everything a loss compared to the surpassing greatness of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord, for whose sake I have lost all things. I consider them rubbish, that I may gain Christ." - Philippians 3:8
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Old 07-24-2008, 03:23 PM
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So if someone's worldview is that all mankind is hopelessly fallen and doomed for eternal punishment, but the worldview doesn't give a means to overcome this (even if by grace), then the worldview logically contradicts itself?
There are no theistic worldviews that don't attempt to give a way of redemption. My comment about fatal flaw was that they will give a way of redemption that somehow puts man in the center as if man could earn redemption, while man in fact could only possibly do what is required of him from here on out, instead of making up for the evil that they do/will do. It is inconsistent with God's revealed infinite justice.

One could state the fatal flaw as putting God's mercy over against his justice.

CT
I'm not sure exactly what you're saying -- how do you demonstrate that a works-based salvation is inconsistent with God's revealed justice?
Well given Creation ex nihilo theism, it is inconsistent to claim that God's justice can be meet with some mixture of Good and bad actions. You would have to challenge God's justice in order to make that argument. But then you would have to challenge general revelation.

CT
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  #49 (permalink)  
Old 07-24-2008, 03:37 PM
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I'm not sure exactly what you're saying -- how do you demonstrate that a works-based salvation is inconsistent with God's revealed justice?
Well given Creation ex nihilo theism, it is inconsistent to claim that God's justice can be meet with some mixture of Good and bad actions. You would have to challenge God's justice in order to make that argument. But then you would have to challenge general revelation.

CT
Why does ex nihilo creation point to the necessity of only good actions? Why does that challenge God's justice? I'm sorry that I keep probing you; I just really want to understand how to go about explaining this concept. Thanks for your help.
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"What is more, I consider everything a loss compared to the surpassing greatness of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord, for whose sake I have lost all things. I consider them rubbish, that I may gain Christ." - Philippians 3:8
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  #50 (permalink)  
Old 07-25-2008, 12:57 AM
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That's my problem -- how do you get them to shut their mouths if they can offer a non-Christian worldview that accounts for everything?
They can't. That's the whole point is that they have to borrow some aspect of Christianity at some point in order to make their worldview make sense.
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  #51 (permalink)  
Old 07-25-2008, 01:48 AM
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That's my problem -- how do you get them to shut their mouths if they can offer a non-Christian worldview that accounts for everything?
They can't. That's the whole point is that they have to borrow some aspect of Christianity at some point in order to make their worldview make sense.
I understand that. The problem I have is in demonstrating it for worldviews that are extremely close to Christianity. I think I'm getting somewhere, though. This stuff by Jonathan Edwards is quite helpful:

Works of Jonathan Edwards, Volume Two | Christian Classics Ethereal Library
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"What is more, I consider everything a loss compared to the surpassing greatness of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord, for whose sake I have lost all things. I consider them rubbish, that I may gain Christ." - Philippians 3:8
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Old 07-26-2008, 12:46 AM
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I'm not sure exactly what you're saying -- how do you demonstrate that a works-based salvation is inconsistent with God's revealed justice?
Well given Creation ex nihilo theism, it is inconsistent to claim that God's justice can be meet with some mixture of Good and bad actions. You would have to challenge God's justice in order to make that argument. But then you would have to challenge general revelation.

CT
Why does ex nihilo creation point to the necessity of only good actions? Why does that challenge God's justice? I'm sorry that I keep probing you; I just really want to understand how to go about explaining this concept. Thanks for your help.
God is completely/infinitely good and just, correct? All bad actions would be worthy of infinite punishment, right? So it would be inconsistent to say that works based righteousness could somehow make up for the bad that is done by doing good. You already owe God completely obedience and goodness.

CT
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  #53 (permalink)  
Old 07-26-2008, 12:51 AM
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Well given Creation ex nihilo theism, it is inconsistent to claim that God's justice can be meet with some mixture of Good and bad actions. You would have to challenge God's justice in order to make that argument. But then you would have to challenge general revelation.

CT
Why does ex nihilo creation point to the necessity of only good actions? Why does that challenge God's justice? I'm sorry that I keep probing you; I just really want to understand how to go about explaining this concept. Thanks for your help.
God is completely/infinitely good and just, correct? All bad actions would be worthy of infinite punishment, right? So it would be inconsistent to say that works based righteousness could somehow make up for the bad that is done by doing good. You already owe God completely obedience and goodness.

CT
I understand the doctrine, but I don't understand how you could demonstrate this by just pointing to natural revelation.
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"What is more, I consider everything a loss compared to the surpassing greatness of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord, for whose sake I have lost all things. I consider them rubbish, that I may gain Christ." - Philippians 3:8
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Old 07-26-2008, 01:41 AM
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Why does ex nihilo creation point to the necessity of only good actions? Why does that challenge God's justice? I'm sorry that I keep probing you; I just really want to understand how to go about explaining this concept. Thanks for your help.
God is completely/infinitely good and just, correct? All bad actions would be worthy of infinite punishment, right? So it would be inconsistent to say that works based righteousness could somehow make up for the bad that is done by doing good. You already owe God completely obedience and goodness.

CT
I understand the doctrine, but I don't understand how you could demonstrate this by just pointing to natural revelation.
What part are you having problems with understanding. What do you currently see natural revelation as saying/revealing?

CT
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Old 07-26-2008, 02:02 AM
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God is completely/infinitely good and just, correct? All bad actions would be worthy of infinite punishment, right? So it would be inconsistent to say that works based righteousness could somehow make up for the bad that is done by doing good. You already owe God completely obedience and goodness.

CT
I understand the doctrine, but I don't understand how you could demonstrate this by just pointing to natural revelation.
What part are you having problems with understanding. What do you currently see natural revelation as saying/revealing?

CT
Why does natural revelation naturally point to a belief in salvation by grace? Why, from just viewing nature, is it unnatural (no pun intended) to believe that a works-based salvation can suffice?
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Ben
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"What is more, I consider everything a loss compared to the surpassing greatness of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord, for whose sake I have lost all things. I consider them rubbish, that I may gain Christ." - Philippians 3:8
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  #56 (permalink)  
Old 07-26-2008, 02:24 AM
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I understand the doctrine, but I don't understand how you could demonstrate this by just pointing to natural revelation.
What part are you having problems with understanding. What do you currently see natural revelation as saying/revealing?

CT
Why does natural revelation naturally point to a belief in salvation by grace? Why, from just viewing nature, is it unnatural (no pun intended) to believe that a works-based salvation can suffice?
Okay, now I am confused as to why my above argument is not sufficient? Are you asking why natural revelation does not reveal God to be partly just/partly unjust?

Again what do you think natural revelation is saying. If I know what you think it is saying, then I can at least know your starting point and then we could proceed from there.

CT
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Old 07-26-2008, 03:20 AM
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What part are you having problems with understanding. What do you currently see natural revelation as saying/revealing?

CT
Why does natural revelation naturally point to a belief in salvation by grace? Why, from just viewing nature, is it unnatural (no pun intended) to believe that a works-based salvation can suffice?
Okay, now I am confused as to why my above argument is not sufficient? Are you asking why natural revelation does not reveal God to be partly just/partly unjust?

Again what do you think natural revelation is saying. If I know what you think it is saying, then I can at least know your starting point and then we could proceed from there.

CT
I don't know how to demonstrate that natural revelation shows the infinite justice of the Creator, and why that justice must account for every sin (thus showing that all men are guilty of condemnation). So, two things that I would love for you to demonstrate, for my sake:

1. That natural revelation shows that the Creator must have justice as an attribute.
2. That the justice is one that disallows all sins -- IOW, there must be no sin at all, not just less sin than good.

I believe that natural revelation is clear and that all men know this, but how can it be formulated in an argument or demonstration?
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Old 07-26-2008, 10:19 AM
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What do you currently see natural revelation as saying/revealing?

CT
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