ValleyofVision
Puritan Board Freshman
So I have a question in regards to 1 Timothy 2 and hoping someone could help me understand more clearly.
I have struggled with the thought of God saving only the elect. It makes me feel like that plants a sense of "pride" within the chosen one because they have been saved by Christ and not the others (correct me if I'm wrong about this). If someone is truly desiring to know God, but is not apart of the elect, then how does that person accept God's decision in not calling them to be saved? Also, how does the chosen one respond to that person?
Now onto my question:
2 I urge, then, first of all, that petitions, prayers, intercession and thanksgiving be made for all people— 2 for kings and all those in authority, that we may live peaceful and quiet lives in all godliness and holiness. 3 This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4 who wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God and one mediator between God and mankind, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave himself as a ransom for all people. This has now been witnessed to at the proper time. 7 And for this purpose I was appointed a herald and an apostle—I am telling the truth, I am not lying—and a true and faithful teacher of the Gentiles.
Why didn't Paul say that God wants only the elect to be saved and know the knowledge of truth? Why did Paul say the Man Christ Jesus, gave himself as a ransom for only those chosen? Is it true that God truly wants all people to be saved? Or is it only the elect? Has God already predestined the ones that are going to know him and not know Him, or did He, before creation, desire that ALL humans come to know Him?
I have struggled with the thought of God saving only the elect. It makes me feel like that plants a sense of "pride" within the chosen one because they have been saved by Christ and not the others (correct me if I'm wrong about this). If someone is truly desiring to know God, but is not apart of the elect, then how does that person accept God's decision in not calling them to be saved? Also, how does the chosen one respond to that person?
Now onto my question:
2 I urge, then, first of all, that petitions, prayers, intercession and thanksgiving be made for all people— 2 for kings and all those in authority, that we may live peaceful and quiet lives in all godliness and holiness. 3 This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4 who wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God and one mediator between God and mankind, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave himself as a ransom for all people. This has now been witnessed to at the proper time. 7 And for this purpose I was appointed a herald and an apostle—I am telling the truth, I am not lying—and a true and faithful teacher of the Gentiles.
Why didn't Paul say that God wants only the elect to be saved and know the knowledge of truth? Why did Paul say the Man Christ Jesus, gave himself as a ransom for only those chosen? Is it true that God truly wants all people to be saved? Or is it only the elect? Has God already predestined the ones that are going to know him and not know Him, or did He, before creation, desire that ALL humans come to know Him?