Ryan&Amber2013
Puritan Board Senior
I have been researching this and can't find any answers: If baptism and circumcision are interlinked in many ways and they are both considered a "means of grace", why were women denied the right of the means of grace in the Old Testament? As Presbyterians we say baptism mysteriously works blessing in the infants life as a sign and seal, so does this mean Old Testament infant girls were withheld such blessings? Thanks so much in advance for your thoughts.