Well, my first thread so here goes nothing. A question i have been wondering about since I first began to study the Bible a year ago.
If it is an unconditional elect, [that is not based upon anything we do to merit the salvation that God has bestowed upon us (elect)] then how can there be a covenant promise to the children of regenerate parents? Would this not make that Child's salvation conditional upon the parent's faith and make it contingent to the prior regeneration of one if not both? If so how do we differ on the decree of God. Being supralapsarian i do not see a difference in the order of the decrees, So when were they elected to salvation then the parents without anything being forseen by God?
ANY input is much appreciated. I am not looking for a debate, i have no stance on this. Just looking for a little guidance! Grace and peace.
If it is an unconditional elect, [that is not based upon anything we do to merit the salvation that God has bestowed upon us (elect)] then how can there be a covenant promise to the children of regenerate parents? Would this not make that Child's salvation conditional upon the parent's faith and make it contingent to the prior regeneration of one if not both? If so how do we differ on the decree of God. Being supralapsarian i do not see a difference in the order of the decrees, So when were they elected to salvation then the parents without anything being forseen by God?
ANY input is much appreciated. I am not looking for a debate, i have no stance on this. Just looking for a little guidance! Grace and peace.