I was listening to this lecture by Dr. John Gerstner on RefNet Radio the other day, and he mentioned the one place in the WCF wherewith he disagreed, and that is in the language of WCF 28.6, which reads as follows (the passage of interest is bolded):
I understood why he disagreed (I think). He said that the Westminster Divines did not believe that grace is conferred at baptism, yet he could not find any other way to read this (please listen to the lecture linked above for context and exact wording used).
On my reading of the WCF, I also found this statement to be of interest, especially in juxtaposition to 28.6, and this is WCF 27.3, which reads as follows:
As I read it, I imagine that the point being made is that the sacraments are not magical, and do not confer grace per se (27.3), but any grace conferred is conferred by the Holy Spirit (28.6). Furthermore, it seems that 28.6 is saying that the grace conferred is only conferred to the elect alone ("...to such as that grace belongeth unto..."), and is conferred, in many if not most cases, at a later time ("...according to the counsel of God's own will, in His appointed time...").
Am I reading these passages correctly? My question is: What specifically about this did Dr. Gerstner disagree, do you think?
The efficacy of Baptism is not tied to that moment of time wherein it is administered; yet, not withstanding, by the right use of this ordinance, the grace promised is not only offered, but really exhibited, and conferred, by the Holy Ghost, to such (whether of age or infants) as that grace belongeth unto, according to the counsel of God's own will, in His appointed time.
I understood why he disagreed (I think). He said that the Westminster Divines did not believe that grace is conferred at baptism, yet he could not find any other way to read this (please listen to the lecture linked above for context and exact wording used).
On my reading of the WCF, I also found this statement to be of interest, especially in juxtaposition to 28.6, and this is WCF 27.3, which reads as follows:
The grace which is exhibited in or by the sacraments rightly used, is not conferred by any power in them; neither doth the efficacy of a sacrament depend upon the piety or intention of him that doth administer it: but upon the work of the Spirit, and the word of institution, which contains, together with a precept authorizing the use thereof, a promise of benefit to worthy receivers.
As I read it, I imagine that the point being made is that the sacraments are not magical, and do not confer grace per se (27.3), but any grace conferred is conferred by the Holy Spirit (28.6). Furthermore, it seems that 28.6 is saying that the grace conferred is only conferred to the elect alone ("...to such as that grace belongeth unto..."), and is conferred, in many if not most cases, at a later time ("...according to the counsel of God's own will, in His appointed time...").
Am I reading these passages correctly? My question is: What specifically about this did Dr. Gerstner disagree, do you think?