reaganmarsh
Puritan Board Senior
Greetings PB brethren,
I have a question for you guys. I'm reading in John Flavel's Works (BOT, vol 1, p 178) and he makes the following statement:
"He (to wit out surety, Christ) was oppressed, and he was afflicted, saith the prophet, Isa lii.7. it may be fitly rendered, (and the words will bear it without the least force) it was exacted, and answered. But how, being either way translated, it establisheth the satisfaction of Christ, may be seen in our learned Annotations."
Which Annotations are referred to here: the Westminster Annotations, those of the KJV translators (generally not included in modern editions), or something else?
Thanks, y'all.
I have a question for you guys. I'm reading in John Flavel's Works (BOT, vol 1, p 178) and he makes the following statement:
"He (to wit out surety, Christ) was oppressed, and he was afflicted, saith the prophet, Isa lii.7. it may be fitly rendered, (and the words will bear it without the least force) it was exacted, and answered. But how, being either way translated, it establisheth the satisfaction of Christ, may be seen in our learned Annotations."
Which Annotations are referred to here: the Westminster Annotations, those of the KJV translators (generally not included in modern editions), or something else?
Thanks, y'all.