Romans 3:25

[zsmcd]

But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. vv21-26

Preaching on this passage on Sunday, my pastor spoke a good deal concerning God's forbearance which is a characteristic of God that I had not previously looked much into. Does anybody have any good/short (maybe an article) resource that talks a good bit more about this?

Questions that this caused me to think through:

- Did believers before the cross experience the full forgiveness of sins even though those sins had not yet been propitiated on the cross? If yes, how so? If not, how did believers experience justification? Just a few passages later, Paul will speak of Abraham being counted righteous which seems to imply the forgiveness of sins. Likewise, Psalm 130 and elsewhere seems to imply that sins were forgiven before the cross. How're we to understand this in regards to God's forbearance?

- What does it mean that God "passed over the sins previously committed"?

- When Paul says "for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time" is he referring back to God's forbearance or the propitiation on the cross? i.e. is he saying that God's forbearance demonstrates His righteousness?

Thanks ya'll.

 

[Peairtach]

Zach

- Did believers before the cross experience the full forgiveness of sins even though those sins had not yet been propitiated on the cross? If yes, how so?

Yes they did. The Spirit ministered to them the benefits of Christ's future work through the light and understanding they got from the sacrifices and the ceremonies.

E.g.

Let Israel hope in the Lord: for with the Lord there is mercy, and with him is plenteous redemption.(Psalm 130:7)

As far as the east is from the west, so far hath he removed our transgressions from us. (Psalm 103:12)

Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.(John 8:56)

David hoped he could enjoy all these benefits of salvation, again:

Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean: wash me, and I shall be whiter than snow. Make me to hear joy and gladness; that the bones which thou hast broken may rejoice. Hide thy face from my sins, and blot out all mine iniquities. Create in me a clean heart, O God; and renew a right spirit within me. Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me.Restore unto me the joy of thy salvation; and uphold me with thy free spirit. Then will I teach transgressors thy ways; and sinners shall be converted unto thee. (Psalm 51:7-13)

Zach

How're we to understand this in regards to God's forbearance?

The mention of "forbearance" here means that in time God had not yet received true satisfaction for sins because God in Christ had not yet done the work of redemption, and the blood of bulls and of goats were but "carnal" symbols of that and not the real thing. Yet God in His mercy forgave many before He accomplished salvation in Christ by which work of Christ He was publically vindicated as being righteous in His forgiveness of the OT saints.

Zach

What does it mean that God "passed over the sins previously committed"?

He forgave the sins of His OT elect, even although He had no true publically-displayed righteousness by which to do this until Christ came into the world.