"For just as through the disobedience of the one man, the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one, the many will be made righteous."
Hi, everyone,
I was listening to the 2016 Ligonier National Conference, and Steven Lawson notes through this verse that just as Christ represented the elect in the limited atonement, Adam represented the elect (not all of humanity) as well.
So, this concept is really new to me, and there are a bunch of theological questions that this raises. If someone is familiar with this train of thought and can enlighten me, I'd be very appreciative!
1) So, if Adam "passed" his probationary period, would the elect have been "promoted" to heaven and the reprobate simply have remained in Eden?
2) How does original sin convey to everyone if Adam represented only the elect? I get that he's our hereditary father, but I'm trying to reconcile the asymmetrical nature of Adam plunging ALL into original sin (while potentially generating righteousness ONLY for the elect) and Christ's atonement then being limited as well.
3) Is Lawson's interpretation universally accepted within Reformed circles? Or do some maintain that Adam did indeed represent all of humanity during his probationary period in Eden, which could have led to potentially having all of humanity being credited with righteousness HAD he passed the test?
Just trying to reconcile Lawson's assertion with the foundations of the Reformed faith. Thanks for your help!
Hi, everyone,
I was listening to the 2016 Ligonier National Conference, and Steven Lawson notes through this verse that just as Christ represented the elect in the limited atonement, Adam represented the elect (not all of humanity) as well.
So, this concept is really new to me, and there are a bunch of theological questions that this raises. If someone is familiar with this train of thought and can enlighten me, I'd be very appreciative!
1) So, if Adam "passed" his probationary period, would the elect have been "promoted" to heaven and the reprobate simply have remained in Eden?
2) How does original sin convey to everyone if Adam represented only the elect? I get that he's our hereditary father, but I'm trying to reconcile the asymmetrical nature of Adam plunging ALL into original sin (while potentially generating righteousness ONLY for the elect) and Christ's atonement then being limited as well.
3) Is Lawson's interpretation universally accepted within Reformed circles? Or do some maintain that Adam did indeed represent all of humanity during his probationary period in Eden, which could have led to potentially having all of humanity being credited with righteousness HAD he passed the test?
Just trying to reconcile Lawson's assertion with the foundations of the Reformed faith. Thanks for your help!