Puritan Sailor
Puritan Board Doctor
In his inaugural lecture, "The Two Kingdoms and the Ordo Salutis", David VanDrunen made this statement attempting to explain how the practice of the moral law changes for those who have been justified and enter into the covenant of grace (WTJ 70 (2008), pg. 220).
My question regards his assertion about the obligation of forgiveness as a unique duty for those within the covenant of grace. Perhaps I may be misunderstanding him (and if so please correct me), but it seems to me that he is asserting that the obligation to "forgive our debtors" was not an intrinsic part of the moral law from the beginning or even binding upon those still under the covenant of works, but an additional duty imposed after we experience redemption through Christ.
So my questions are as follows:
1) Is this true that mercy and forgiveness are not required by the moral law for people outside the covenant of grace? (I know magistrates must execute justice per Gen 9/Roman 13 etc., but what about the common ethics of mankind under the covenant of works apart from that judicial office?) And if so, how can this be reconciled with our Confession's assertion that the same moral law given in the beginning continues to be "the perfect rule of righteousness" which binds "both justified persons and others" (WCF 19)?
2) Is there any historical precedent (i.e. references) in the Reformed tradition to understand the obligations of the moral law evolving progressively in this way for those coming into the covenant of grace, or that forgiveness is not a duty for those still under the covenant of works?
3) Perhaps a more "rubber meets the road" angle to this question: Should a pastor tell an unbelieving married couple that they must forgive one another in order for their marriage to work?
* I don't want this to turn into a "blast all things 2K" thread. Please stick to this particular question of forgiveness as it relates to the moral law and provide some references if you know of any.
The explanatory footnotes are here:Clearly, love in some sense is a requirement of the natural law, known apart from justification.26 But there is a love revealed in Christ's redemptive work and in justification that is unknown in natural law or even in pre-redemptive special revelation. This is a love of mercy, of forgiveness. That we would be merciful, forgiving, is not something known to pre-fall Adam or to non-justified sinners. But now mercy and forgiveness have become central, defining characteristics of the Christian life of the justified.27 In this sense (at least), justification has effected a change not merely in the context of morality but even in its substance.
26 If the moral law and natural law are summarized in the Decalogue and the Decalogue is summarized by the two great love commandments (as commonly taught in Reformed theology and in the Reformed confessional standards), then this statement must be true. The love prescribed in the covenant of works and in the natural law is a love apparently to be practiced without considerations of mercy and forgiveness. This is also strikingly true of the Decalogue, whose precepts make no mention of mercy or forgiveness either.
27 How do such claims relate to the image of God? This is a point I hope to develop at more length in the future, but a few comments may indicate a helpful direction. As a general consideration, it seems correct to say that morality ought always to reflect the image of God, and hence should reflect the moral nature of God that is revealed. First, then, perhaps we might say that the love prescribed in the covenant of works reflects the moral nature of God as revealed in that original covenant. God revealed himself as a just God, but not as a merciful God, so that the law of the covenant of works (both as naturally and supernaturally revealed) prescribed a love that was to be expressed only in terms of the strict administration of justice. This seems to make sense of Gen 1:26 in the context of Gen 1-3. Second, perhaps we might say that the love prescribed to fallen sinners, in the context of common grace, reflects the moral nature of God as revealed in the common grace covenant. In the covenant of common grace God continues to reveal himself as just, but as just in a way tempered by tolerance and forbearance (which are not the same as mercy and forgiveness). Hence, the law of the covenant of common grace prescribes a love that entails the practice of justice, though tempered with forbearance. This seems to make sense of Gen 9:6, in the context of Gen 9 (I take the appeal to the image of God here to refer primarily to the authority of a human being to execute justice rather than to the value of human life). Third, perhaps we might say that the love prescribed to redeemed sinners reflects the moral nature of God as revealed in the covenant of grace. Hence, the law of the covenant of grace prescribes a love in which the claims of justice are no longer applied strictly or even simply delayed through forbearance, but instead transcended through the rendering of mercy and forgiveness made possible because of God's forgiveness of believers in Christ. This seems to make sense of Rom 8:29 and other texts that speak of being restored unto the image of Christ in redemption. This also seems consistent with the fifth petition of the prayer that Jesus taught his disäples to pray: Forgive us our debts as we forgive our debtors. There is no practice of forgiveness prescribed in God's law unless that law comes in the context of the forgiveness bestowed in Christ."
My question regards his assertion about the obligation of forgiveness as a unique duty for those within the covenant of grace. Perhaps I may be misunderstanding him (and if so please correct me), but it seems to me that he is asserting that the obligation to "forgive our debtors" was not an intrinsic part of the moral law from the beginning or even binding upon those still under the covenant of works, but an additional duty imposed after we experience redemption through Christ.
So my questions are as follows:
1) Is this true that mercy and forgiveness are not required by the moral law for people outside the covenant of grace? (I know magistrates must execute justice per Gen 9/Roman 13 etc., but what about the common ethics of mankind under the covenant of works apart from that judicial office?) And if so, how can this be reconciled with our Confession's assertion that the same moral law given in the beginning continues to be "the perfect rule of righteousness" which binds "both justified persons and others" (WCF 19)?
2) Is there any historical precedent (i.e. references) in the Reformed tradition to understand the obligations of the moral law evolving progressively in this way for those coming into the covenant of grace, or that forgiveness is not a duty for those still under the covenant of works?
3) Perhaps a more "rubber meets the road" angle to this question: Should a pastor tell an unbelieving married couple that they must forgive one another in order for their marriage to work?
* I don't want this to turn into a "blast all things 2K" thread. Please stick to this particular question of forgiveness as it relates to the moral law and provide some references if you know of any.