Mr. Bultitude
Puritan Board Freshman
Calvin, commenting on 1 Corinthians 10:20 ("The things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to devils, and not to God: and I would not that ye should have fellowship with devils"), says:
Here's his citation from Baruch 4:7:
So, why did Calvin refer to Baruch as a prophet, given that Baruch is never called a prophet in Scripture, and given that the book attributed to him is probably not his own work?
It is certain from the Prophet Baruch, (4:7,) that those things that are sacrificed to idols are sacrificed to devils (Deuteronomy 32:17; Psalm 96:5.) In that passage in the writings of the Prophet, the Greek translation, which was at that time in common use, has δαιμόνια — demons, and this is its common use in Scripture. How much more likely is it then, that Paul borrowed what he says from the Prophet, to express the enormity of the evil, than that, speaking after the manner of the heathen, he extenuated what he was desirous to hold up to utter execration!
Here's his citation from Baruch 4:7:
For you provoked your Maker with sacrifices to demons and not to God.
So, why did Calvin refer to Baruch as a prophet, given that Baruch is never called a prophet in Scripture, and given that the book attributed to him is probably not his own work?