# Quick question on dispensation vs. administration



## Finnsbane (Jan 10, 2016)

Concerning the covenant of grace as the WCF defines it, can the biblical term "dispensation" be understood interchangeably or synonymously with the implicit term "administration"? If not, what would be the proper distinctions to make? 


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk


----------



## Contra_Mundum (Jan 10, 2016)

Finnsbane said:


> can the biblical term "dispensation"...


Is the question related to the underlying terms, or to the English rendering?

The rendering of words is translation-dependent. The venerable KJV uses _dispensation _4X. A modern ESV never.

The ESV uses administ* 4X and the KJV uses it 4X.

oikonomia is KJV translated dispensation 4X, and steward* 4X. The ESV uses steward* the great majority of the opportunities. Also uses "plan" in Eph.1:10.

diakonia/ew is KJV translated more often minist* than administ*.

The ESV translates kubemesis (hapax, 1Cor.12:28) as _administration,_ the KJV as _government._

*******************************
Both English words (dispens* and adminis*) are use in the West. Stds., and in most cases the words and forms thereof are functional synonyms.

(Exception would be "dispensing with" WLC139, which means doing-away-with).

At times (e.g WCF 27:4) a word like "ministered" would fit where "dispensed" is used, but since "minister" (noun) is used in the same sentence, use of a disparate synonym reduces confusion.

In 7.6 you have the following terms: dispensed, administration, administered, and dispensations. The variety of terminology is an aid to clarity.

Dispens* could turn thoughts to the stewardship angle. Adminis* could turn thoughts to the service angle.


----------



## Finnsbane (Jan 11, 2016)

Contra_Mundum said:


> Finnsbane said:
> 
> 
> > can the biblical term "dispensation"...
> ...



Very helpful, thank you. So would it be appropriate to assume that the 'administration' of the covenant of grace in the OT is functionally the same thing as the 'dispensation' of the Law within that same covenant? 


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk


----------



## Contra_Mundum (Jan 11, 2016)

Finnsbane said:


> So would it be appropriate to assume that the 'administration' of the covenant of grace in the OT is functionally the same thing as the 'dispensation' of the Law within that same covenant?


*WCF 7, Of God's Covenant with Man*
7:5 This covenant was differently administered in *the time of the law*, and in *the time of the gospel*: under the law, it was administered by promises, prophecies, sacrifices, circumcision, the paschal lamb, and other types and ordinances delivered to the people of the Jews, all fore-signifying Christ to come...

7:6 Under the gospel, when Christ, the substance, was exhibited,... There are not therefore two covenants of grace, differing in substance, but one and the same, under *various* dispensations.​
In para.5, the phrase "time of the law" is used in a broad sense, basically covering the ages prior to the coming in of Christ. The original covenant of works looms over that time, and law threatens all because all sinned. We are made aware that there is another principle coming forth, one of grace, which is also operative in that "time" but awaits full revelation in the Person of Christ, and the "time of the gospel."

The phrase "under the law" then takes in the whole OT by inclusively speaking not only of promises, but also the primary exhibition of that age in the Mosaic or Siniatic administration, or Law of Moses.

_"Administration' of the covenant of grace in the OT_ *is not* _functionally the same thing as the 'dispensation' of the Law,_ for this reason: there was more than one administration of the CoG in the OT.

There is a "proto-administration" from Adam post-fall until Abraham. The CoG is operative starting with Gen.3:15 (if we ignore the Son's appointment from before the foundation of the world); but there is little in the way of recorded revelation directly to its point. Sin is the problem, death is the too obvious result, but hope has been promised.

Starting with Abraham, we have new and (in contrast to before) brilliant revelation. The promise is given fresh life, and a vector, and a plain covenant expression. It is the one Seed of Abraham that will provide the solution to the problem; and to bring it about there are intermediate promises that will be fulfilled step-by-step on the way. And the end result is not something that this world can contain. So Hebrews tells us that Abraham was not looking for his own earthly fulfillment (a city).

The "dispensation/adminstration of the Law" is strictly speaking the time of Israel under the Law of Moses. There are several "phases" of this administration, which if one knows OT history he can find the contours. In general they are: in the wilderness, in the land, under the kings, exile/return. In the center of this administration you can find the climactic promises of the CoG made to David.

Hope this is helpful. Of course, much much more can be said.


----------



## Finnsbane (Jan 11, 2016)

Contra_Mundum said:


> Finnsbane said:
> 
> 
> > So would it be appropriate to assume that the 'administration' of the covenant of grace in the OT is functionally the same thing as the 'dispensation' of the Law within that same covenant?
> ...



That is exactly what I was looking for. Thanks so much for your time.

Yours in the Lord,


----------

