# Romans 1:16



## yeutter (Jun 3, 2004)

&quot;For I am not ashamed of the Gospel for it is the power of God unto salvation. To the Jew first and also unto the Greek&quot;

How am I to understand this and similar passages. 

Do We have an obligation first to reach out to the Jews then to the gentiles?

Do we understand our obligation to be first to the household of faith, i.e. those who are called Christians? 

Is this a historical reference with no special importance to us today.

This came to mind in light of the ongoing thead on Isreal. Is our first obligation their to those who are called Christians or to the Jews?


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## Scott Bushey (Jun 3, 2004)

The gosepl was to the Jew first........but also to the gentiles.

Mat 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
Mat 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.


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## Irishcat922 (Jun 3, 2004)

[quote:521213f8c4][i:521213f8c4]Originally posted by Scott Bushey[/i:521213f8c4]
The gosepl was to the Jew first........but also to the gentiles.

Mat 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
Mat 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. [/quote:521213f8c4]
I think like Scott points out here that the gospel did go out to the jew first, then went to the gentiles. 
Acts 13:46 Paul and Barnabas spoke out boldly, and said, it was necessary that the word of God should have been first spoken to you. Seeing you thrust it from you, and judge youselves unworthy of eternal life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles.


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