# Revelation 22:18-19 - Referring to the whole Bible, or just Revelation?



## David (Apr 9, 2010)

This is something I've wondered about for a while, but is probably a silly question.



Revelation 22:18-19 (KJV said:


> *18* For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
> *19* And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.



These verses are occasionally used as Scriptural proof against modifying any part of the Bible. That should be common sense, but looking at the context, it seems that these verses can only be talking about the book of Revelation itself, not the Bible in its entirety.

Is there any reason to believe that they refer to the whole, completed Bible?


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## louis_jp (Apr 9, 2010)

I take them as referring only to Revelation. But I guess you could say that since that book is the capstone to all earlier prophecies and revelations of scripture, it applies to the whole bible too.


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## Peairtach (Apr 9, 2010)

Is it an accident that the Bible ends in that way? Is anything an accident, particularly to do with the Bible?

The way it is phrased in two ways, could be taken as firstly referring to the Book of Revelation and secondly to the Bible of which it is a part.

Whether or not Revelation was the last book of the New Testament to be written, the only appropriate place for Revelation is at the end of the completed New Covenant document.

In connection with the above, is the ''little book'' open in the angel's (Christ's) hand (Revelation 10), the completed New Testament?

It's ''little'' because it's smaller than the Old Testament and smaller than the scroll of chapter 4 which contains the redemptive history of the New Covenant period.

It's ''open'' because the Gospel is to be openly proclaimed to every creature.

John has to ''eat'' it so he can proclaim it ''before many peoples, and nations, and tongues, and kings'' (Rev. 10:11)

It includes the final portion of Revelation from chapter 11, which John ''proclaims'' to us. 

Some of these questions may be affected by whether the commentator on Revelation takes and early date (mid '60s) for the writing of Revelation, or a late date (mid '90s)


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## jambo (Apr 9, 2010)

I would say this verse relates only to Revelation but the principle is applied to the whole bible. The book of Deuteronomy carries a similar warning whilst the biblical prophets condemn the false prophets who claim to speak for God when God has not spoken. Jesus quoting Deuteronomy states man does not live by bread alone but every word that proceeds from the mouth of God and later Jesus says that heaven and earth may pass away but his words will never pass away (BTW that's an interesting question to ask the JWs about). Thus we can see the importance of each specific word of God, hence one dare not add to nor subtract from it.


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## Peairtach (Apr 9, 2010)

It's also interesting to ask the JWs if the 144,000 are to be taken literally as they say, why aren't all of their 144,000 male virgins!


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## Grimmson (Apr 9, 2010)

Just to Revelation, if you want me to explain the reason for this position I would be happy to sometime.


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## David (Apr 9, 2010)

I think the principle _definitely_ applies to the whole Bible. Contextually though, it seems that we mostly agree that the verses are only referring to Revelation itself.



Richard Tallach said:


> It's also interesting to ask the JWs if the 144,000 are to be taken literally as they say, why aren't all of their 144,000 male virgins!


I know their New World Translation changes references to our Lord and Saviour as God to "a god". I wonder if this is repeated in the book of Revelation. That, coupled with those verses, would surely produce a good case against their blasphemous changes.


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## Peairtach (Apr 9, 2010)

Grimmson said:


> Just to Revelation, if you want me to explain the reason for this position I would be happy to sometime.



It would be interesting to know who decided the order of the books in the NT and how they went about it. If you have such info it would be of interest.

Do you think they may reflect a _very general_ '' covenantal'' pattern as may _the Christian order_ of the books in the Old Testament?

Probably warrants another thread.


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## MW (Apr 9, 2010)

David said:


> Is there any reason to believe that they refer to the whole, completed Bible?


 
There are a number of exegetical issues related to this passage. The two main issues revolve around the speaker and the point of limitation. If the speaker is John then the threatening devolves upon the book that he has penned; but if the speaker is the One who testifies, Jesus Himself, then there is a broader application to prophecy as a whole as it comes from Jesus, and the Book of Revelation is marked off as being the final prophetic word. To my mind, verses 16-20 form a complete literary unit describing the Witness (see 1:5) and His testimony, and can be none other than Jesus Himself. That being the case, the passage provides a warning against adding to or detracting from the word of prophecy which Jesus has given in this book.

My own approach to the book of Revelation sees it as a New Testament answer to the issues which are left open in the book of Daniel. Revelation is essentially the prophecy to end all prophecy in terms relative to Daniel 9:24. There is a trap if we look at the book as if it intended to "add" something significant to our theological perspective. The reality is that the book was given to "close" our perspective, so as to lead us to look to what Jesus is and has accomplished as the "finish" of all God's prophetic plans. In the context of 22:18, 19, He is represented as the One Who seals up the vision and prophesy.


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## Iconoclast (Apr 10, 2010)

Jesus promised the Apostles *they* would be guided into "all truth"in several passages. There are no more apostles today. Jude says we are to contend for the faith once for all time delivered to the saints. 
Hebrews 1 says that God has now spoken in His Son..... here are passages in Jn 14, 15, 16 and 1jn 1, 1jn 4


> 25These things have I spoken unto you, being yet present with you.
> 
> 26But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.


 26But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me: 

27And ye also shall bear witness, because ye have been with me from the beginning



> 7Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
> 
> 8And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment:
> 
> ...





> 1 John 1
> 1That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;
> 
> 2(For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us
> ...





> 1Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.
> 
> 2Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
> 
> ...


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## dudley (Apr 10, 2010)

I think this verse relates only to Revelation specifically. However the concept can be applied to the entire bible.


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