# The Covenant of Grace: Binitarian or Trinitarian?



## Reformed Elder (Dec 7, 2012)

I am a little confused as concerns a catechism my wife, who was teaching our oldest in his schooling (home schooled), ran by me this morning to verify. The catechism asks, "With whom did God the Father make the covenant of grace?" A: "With Christ, his eternal Son". Now I have always answered this, "With himself" or "With the Triune Godhead". However, almost all of the Reformed confessions that I referenced answer as this shorter catechism. My understanding has been that biblical teaching affirms that God the Father elects, God the Son redeems, and God the Spirit regenerates and seals (i.e. Eph.1:3-14). If the answer stands as the Reformed confessions declare then what do we make of the Spirit (he is absent in this answer)? Is he then just the "power" that accomplishes what the Father and Son determine? If the Spirit is a "person", as I confess, then is he not part of the Godhead and thus participate in the eternal decree of the Covenant of Grace? I may be missing something here...thus I have come to the place of great minds.


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## Peairtach (Dec 7, 2012)

The Spirit must have been involved in the "covenantal discussions" of course. By "covenantal discussions" we're of course speaking analogically and anthropomorphically.

The Holy Spirit is as much God as the Father and the Son, being equal to the Father and the Son in power and glory. He is as righteously offended by the sin of Man as the Father and the Son, and loves the elect as much as the Father and the Son, and has as much an interest in the salvation of His elect people.

The New Testament - particularly the Gospels - maybe says more about the eternal covenantal discussions between the Father and the Son, than those involving the Holy Spirit, which is why these are emphasised regarding the Covenant of Redemption and/or Grace (the Pactum Salutis).


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## Reformed Elder (Dec 7, 2012)

Peairtach said:


> The New Testament - particularly the Gospels - maybe says more about the eternal covenantal discussions between the Father and the Son, than those involving the Holy Spirit, which is why these are emphasised regarding the Covenant of Redemption and/or Grace (the Pactum Salutis).



With this statement, then, are you saying that God made the Covenant of Grace ONLY with the Son? The Spirit was not "involved" in this covenant? Just trying to understand your comment here. Thank you for the reply.


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## MW (Dec 7, 2012)

1 John 1:3, "Our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son Jesus Christ." Does this exclude the Holy Spirit? In a superficial sense, yes, because the Holy Spirit is not mentioned, and in the context of 1 John it served a theological purpose to only mention the Father and the Son. Substantially, however, the Spirit is not excluded because "fellowship" itself is understood from other places of Scripture to be the particular gift of the Holy Spirit, as in the apostolic benediction. Likewise, when it is said that the Father and the Son are the parties contracting in the eternal covenant, it only superficially excludes the Holy Spirit. Against forms of modalism it is important to specify the parties in order not to crucify the Father or put to flight the Spirit. Substantially, however, as we are taught by the Paraclete passages in John 14-16, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of truth and thus the very bond of the covenant.


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## rbcbob (Dec 7, 2012)

Would not the fact that Christ is particularly the Federal Head of the objects of the covenant of grace factor into the language?


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## Peairtach (Dec 7, 2012)

Reformed Elder said:


> Peairtach said:
> 
> 
> > The New Testament - particularly the Gospels - maybe says more about the eternal covenantal discussions between the Father and the Son, than those involving the Holy Spirit, which is why these are emphasised regarding the Covenant of Redemption and/or Grace (the Pactum Salutis).
> ...



No. I'm saying that we can infer from what we know of the full deity of the Holy Spirit and the Trinitarian Godhead that the Holy Spirit was involved in what is commonly called the Covenant of Redemption. 

It could not be that He was not.


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## Rev. Todd Ruddell (Dec 8, 2012)

Add to the posts above that our Lord Jesus Christ, in the upper room discourse declares that it is expedient for Him to go away, because if He goes away He will send the Holy Spirit to His people to take of His, that is, all He has won in His covenantal work, and give it to them, His people. The expediency of Christ's departure in the first century was in order to Him sending the Spirit, in the economy of the Covenant of Grace, with the Father, to those for whom His Covenantal labors have won grace and favor from the Godhead. The Spirit, keeping His covenantal engagements with the Father and Son, takes that word of Christ sending Him, and goes forth effectually calling, regenerating, teaching, sealing, sanctifying, etc. all which are benefits won by Christ for the elect, and administered in the gracious work of the Spirit.


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## Reformed Elder (Dec 8, 2012)

Rev. Todd Ruddell said:


> our Lord Jesus Christ, in the upper room discourse declares that it is expedient for Him to go away, because if He goes away He will send the Holy Spirit to His people to take of His, that is, all He has won in His covenantal work, and give it to them, His people.


 brother. Todd, great articulation! Thank you for the response. In this particular part of the response I couldn't help but think about how the O.T. saints were saved. My own understanding tells me that they were saved by a gracious work of regeneration by the Spirit. One must guard against making too much of Jesus' word concerning the "Helper" coming. Certainly, to some degree he was already present or else the O.T. saint's were not really saints (i.e. saved) or they were saved in another way. I think Jesus was clearly speaking of the "indwelling" of the Spirit as the "guarantee" and spiritual "helper" as concerns their blood bought redemption. As we behold the work of Christ, we see that his redeeming work secures for all the elect an actual salvation. Yet, If we stop there (God predestining and Christ's atoning death) we still fall short of a final salvation. The Spirit, as I assume we both solidly agree, brings the election and atonement home for those God purposed in this covenant of grace to secure. It is inconceivable for me, to think that such a response as our confessions give is right and sufficient to accurately answer concerning the question of the making of the covenant of grace. There is no actual/final expression of grace outside of the regeneration and sealing by the Spirit. Would it not be most biblical to answer the catechism question by answering that God covenanted with himself (i.e. Triune Godhead) in making this covenant of grace? It seems to me that if the catechism is meant only to deal individually with the "Persons" in their specified mentions that a like statement would be made about the Spirit at the appropriate time. However, there is no such mention of the Spirit being "Covenanted" with in this covenant of grace. I love the divines, and ancient confessions, but they are still human and human works and I am really beginning to sense an oversight in this solemn question and answer. Does anyone else feel/see this as pressingly as I do? Does anybody feel that it would be wrong to revisit the confessions for a careful editing/restating in areas that perhaps are in need of them? Why or why not? BTW, Thank you everyone for your insights.


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## Reformed Elder (Dec 8, 2012)

Should Paul's teaching in Galatians 3 accumulating in vs. 20 shed any light on my concern?


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## Rev. Todd Ruddell (Dec 8, 2012)

How about WLC 32?

Question: How is the Grace of God Manifested in the Second Covenant?
Answer:
The grace of God is manifested in the second covenant, in that he freely provideth and offereth to sinners a Mediator,(a) and life and salvation by him;(b) and requiring faith as the condition to interest them in him,(c) promiseth and giveth his Holy Spirit (d) to all his elect, to work in them that faith,(e) with all other saving graces;(f) and to enable them unto all holy obedience,(g) as the evidence of the truth of their faithh and thankfulness to God,(i) and as the way which he hath appointed them to salvation.(j)
a. Gen. 3:15; Isa. 42:6; John 6:27 b. 1 John 5:11–12. c. John 3:16; 1:12. d. Prov. 1:23. e. 2 Cor. 4:13. f. Gal. 5:22–23. g. Ezek 36:27. h. James 2:18, 22. i. 2 Cor. 5:14–15. j. Eph. 2:18.

Or 38: 
Question: Why Was It Requisite that the Mediator Should Be God?
Answer:
It was requisite that the Mediator should be God, that he might sustain and keep the human nature from sinking under the infinite wrath of God, and the power of death;(a) give worth and efficacy to his sufferings, obedience, and intercession;(b) and to satisfy God’s justice,(c) procure his favor,(d) purchase a peculiar people,(e) give his Spirit to them,(f) conquer all their enemies,(g) and bring them to everlasting salvation.(h)
a. Acts 2:24–25; Rom. 1:4; 4:25; Heb. 9:14. b. Acts 20:28; Heb. 9:14; 7:25–28. c. Rom 3:24–26. d. Eph. 1:6; Matt. 3:17. e. Tit. 2:13–14. f. Gal. 4:6. g. Luke 1:68–69, 71, 74. h. Heb. 5:8–9; 9:11–15.

Or 43?
Question: How Doth Christ Execute the Office of a Prophet?
Answer:Christ executeth the office of a prophet, in his revealing to the church,(a) in all ages, by his Spirit and word,(b) in divers ways of administration,(c) the whole will of God,(d) in all things concerning their edification and salvation.(e)
a. John 1:18. b. 1 Pet. 1:10–12. c. Heb. 1:1–2. d. John 15:15. e. Acts 20:32; Eph. 4:11–13; John 20:31.

These are only a few Q&A's in the Larger Catechism which show the work of the Spirit in the Covenant of Grace. I would refer you to these, which show the benefits of the Covenant of Grace administered by the Spirit of God. As to your comment of "making too much of Jesus' word concerning the helper coming", I would only respond by stating that I assume I'm among Reformed friends, who have no strange dichotomy about the work of the Spirit in both Testaments, beyond that fuller effusion of the Spirit spoken of in Ezekiel 36, Jeremiah 31, and Hebrews 8. The saints of the OT also enjoyed their blood bought redemption through that same Spirit. 

I see no urgency as you do, and instead as I look at the Scriptural revelation I see that our divines have done a good job of representing the Son as the focal point of the Covenant of Grace. Seeing the benefits of His work wrought through the Holy Spirit is consistent with the Biblical record. Note that in Acts 1 the Spirit is called the "promise of the Father". When we look at the New Testament and see that the word "promise" is often put for "covenant" the difficulty you speak of is really not a difficulty at all, but the confessions following that lead, focusing on Christ. In other words, to whom is the Spirit promised? He is not promised to the elect, except in Christ. It is Christ that has secured His blessings to all His elect by the Spirit. 

Have a great Lord's Day tomorrow.


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## Reformed Elder (Dec 8, 2012)

Again, thank you my brother for your patience and willingness to help and for bringing these Q&As to my attention. As I was reading your response and went back to read the WLC perhaps I have not been understanding the question correctly. In your understanding, what does #31 seek to clarify? Maybe hearing someone articulate the question will make the difference. Thank you.


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## Rev. Todd Ruddell (Dec 8, 2012)

The question seeks to clarify the error that the Covenant of Grace is made between God the Father and the elect individually. It is not--it is made with Christ specifically, and the elect only in that they are united to Christ by faith. Seeing that procuring the work of redemption is wrought by Christ, and believers are united to Christ and what He has purchased, and that He does so as a man, the second Adam, it would not be proper nor Biblical to say otherwise. Christ says as much the same in John 5 and 6, where He declares that His work is that work upon which the blessings of the Covenant of grace are founded. If you're looking for specific confessional documents that codify an eternal covenant between the three persons of the Trinity, I am not aware of any--however, given the Scriptural evidence, this is acceptable. The doctrine of an inter-trinitarian and eternal Covenant is not confessed by all Reformed divines--I believe it can be inferred from Scripture, but there are others who doubt that it can. If I've not answered your question, please forgive me. Perhaps I haven't gotten the gist of it as yet.


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## Peairtach (Dec 9, 2012)

> Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you. (John 16:13-14)



On a number of occasions we are told that the Holy Spirit wasn't to come to "draw attention" to Himself or to glorify Himself but to point to the Father, and in particular, the Son.

He inspired the Apostles to write more directly of the role of the Father and Son in the Covenant of Redemption, and He did not emphasise His role, at least not directly in past eternity.


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## rbcbob (Dec 9, 2012)

Greg Nichols, in his book COVENANT THEOLOGY, says,



> "... it is prudent carefully to distinguish the eternal counsel of redemption, which the Trinity resolved before the foundation of the world, from this Messianic covenant made in history with the Lord Jesus Christ. This conserves the element of truth recognized both by those Reformed theologians who include the Holy Spirit in God's eternal counsel of redemption ... and by those who affirm that the Father and Son have a special relationship that is covenantal. All three Persons of the Trinity resolve the eternal counsel of redemption. Yet the partaker of the Messianic covenant is God the Son incarnate. This is because the Son alone, not the Holy Spirit, became human and because God swears this pledge in history to Jesus as the God-man.


 Nichols p.288

Nichols references Berkhof's Systematic Theology, pp 267-271


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## Rev. Todd Ruddell (Dec 10, 2012)

Elder Bob, that's a good take on our brother's question. 

Although some covenant theologians "flatten out" the distinctions between the pre-temporal covenant of redemption and the covenant of grace, my own view is that there is a necessary distinction between them.


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