# Baptism for the Dead



## CalvinandHodges (Nov 26, 2007)

Hi:

Does anyone have a clue concerning 1 Cor. 15:29:



> Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?



Thanks,

-CH


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## Kevin Lewis (Nov 26, 2007)

*Read this just the other day and it was good*

Baptized for the Dead
What Does it mean to be
'Baptized for the Dead?'
-by Tony Warren


The phrase found in 1st Corinthians 15:29 of being, 'baptized for the dead' is another much misunderstood and misinterpreted passage. Some groups believe that this passage means that they can baptize their members as proxies on behalf of those that have died unsaved. The Mormon sect in particular teaches that those who are dead can still be Saved if someone who is living is baptized for them. This is a teaching which is debunked with even a cursory study of scripture, for it is evident that no one but Christ has the authority to be a proxy regarding Salvation.

These type teachings have nothing to do with Biblical truth, but because of them there is much confusion among Christians about just what this passage actually means. This can only be cleared up by the careful and diligent study of the Word of God, in it's proper context.

1st Corinthians 15:29

* "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?" 

The Greek word 'for' is [huper]. It is a primary preposition and in this context means, 'for the sake of,' or 'for the benefit of' the dead. This is because baptism is the cleansing of the dead by the Spirit of Christ, wherein they are also raised up in His resurrection. Water baptism signifies this Spiritual baptism or cleansing 'for the sake of' the dead.

The context of this verse is one of Christ's payment for our sins by His death, and how by His resurrection thereafter, we are also made alive from the dead. That is the Baptism or cleansing for the dead. The efficacy of His death and resurrection. All shown by the context starting in the very first verses where it is explained as the very gospel message itself.

1st Corinthians 15:1-3

* "Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

* By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

* For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;" 

Christ was dead for us, and this is the gospel which Paul Preached, and is what He is telling us in verses 1-3. Water Baptism is a 'signification' of the cleansing by the Spirit (Baptism) for the rising of the dead. What we see here is an illustration that Christians were dead in trespasses and sins, and were baptized by Christ's being made alive by the Spirit. It in no way means that someone can have water poured upon them on behalf of some other person who has died. It speaks of our own baptism in the death and resurrection of Christ, and is illustrating how the dead benefit from that. i.e., baptized for the dead.

All of these things must be understood in context. When Paul asked the rhetorical question of, 'why people were baptized for the dead if the dead are not resurrected,' he was asking that in deference to some people at Corinth who doubted the validity of the resurrection of the dead (verse 12). Just as the sadducees had (Matthew 22:23) some did not believe in the resurrection of the dead, and Paul was speaking of just what this heretical belief would mean, if it were indeed true. His speaking of Baptism for the dead was in support of the doctrine of the resurrection of the dead.

1st Corinthians 15:4

* "And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:" 

Because Christ was dead, and we were baptized in His death, we receive the benefit of that death and resurrection. The point of this chapter is the process of the resurrection, not the baptizing living people for dead ones. And in verses 5-11, God goes on to establish His argument for this resurrection with proofs and witnesses of Christ's own rise from the dead. His point being, if Christ rose from the dead, and Christians know it, how can it be said there is no resurrection? How indeed!

1st Corinthians 15:12

* "Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?"

* But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen:" 

If the dead do not rise at all, why then are we baptized in the belief that we were dead in sin, and have risen? If we're not ever going to rise from the dead, why are we baptized that we will be part of the resurrection to life? In other words, this doctrine of no resurrection makes Christ a liar.

John 5:29

* "And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation." 

John 11:25

* "Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live:" 

Christ taught of the resurrection, and Paul is saying that if that is true that there is no resurrection of the dead, then Christianity makes no sense! The point here being, on the contrary, we are baptized for the resurrection of the dead, because we do know Christ was judged for us, suffered death, and rose from that death that there would be a resurrection unto life.

1st Corinthians 15:14

* "And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain." 

Again, Paul, under inspiration of God, is setting forth the truth of Christ’s resurrection, and by extension our resurrection in Him that the second death have no power over us. It is the hope of the Gospel, and an illustration that apart from this resurrection, we are lost and our faith is in vain or of no real value. This verse 14 portrays the hopelessness of the believer in Christ 'if' He was not resurrected for the dead and in the process baptized us with fire. If there is no baptism or cleansing for the dead, that would mean:

1st Corinthians 15:15-16

* "Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.

* For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:" 

If there is no resurrection for us, then there was no resurrection of Christ, and the gospel message is without substance. If there is no baptism or cleansing for the dead by Christ's death, then Christians are all a bunch of false witnesses, because this truth is the foundation of the Gospel message we preach. We say, God forbid! There was a baptism for, and a Resurrection of the dead. And it is a fundamental principle of true Christianity, and the heart of the gospel. The very Rock of Christianity is the unbreakable promise to Christians of life beyond death because of Christ. If we were to take this away, then we would take away the very purpose of baptism of the dead, by the Spirit of Christ.

1st Corinthians 15:17-19

* "And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.

* Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished.

* If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable." 

Again, clear indication of the efficacy of resurrection in taking away our sin. And if Christ was not raised from the dead, then we are still in sin and there is no resurrection to life, and we are found to be foolish, because there is no life after death. All hope is then lost and our faith is worthless. On the other hand, if Christ has died and taken away our sin, and been resurrected the firstfruits of the dead, then our faith is not in vain, and we have been baptized or cleansed for the dead, in Christ. Then does the gospel truth Paul preached stand! By being in Christ when He died and was resurrected, we are baptized (Spiritually cleansed), and also resurrected as He was.

Romans 6:3-4

* "Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?

* Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life." 

This is what baptism for the dead illustrates. Our death in Christ's death. Just as the verse above says, we are Baptized into Christ's death and made alive. Resurrected in Him. And verses 20-28 goes on to say how the truth is that because by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead, and now is Christ risen from the dead, and speaks of Christ reigning until all things shall be subdued unto him, and the Son also himself be subject unto Him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. It is in this context that the next verse reads:

1st Corinthians 15:29

* "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?" 

If all this is not true about the resurrection from the dead, and the judgment, and the end of all things, then why are Christians baptized for the dead, when the dead (according to this philosophy) do not rise at all? It would make no sense. But the truth is, we were buried with Him in baptism. i.e., our baptism is for [huper] (for the sake of, or for the benefit of) the dead, that the dead rise because of that Baptism of the Spirit. Once we read this verse in the proper context of the whole chapter, the truth becomes self evident. We are baptized for the sake of the dead, because we were dead in trespass and sin, and needed a resurrection, which baptism gives us. We were dead, and have been raised with Christ in baptism. The baptism is for us, the dead, that in our death with Christ, we are resurrected by that baptism.

Colossians 2:12

* "Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead." 

We who are buried with Christ in Baptism, declare by that act of God that we believe that He died and was buried for us, and rose again. And we in His baptism. Water baptism merely 'signifies' that One true baptism (ephesians 4:5).

Matthew 3:11

* "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: He shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:" 

As Christ went through the fires of Hell suffering death laden with our sins, we died with Him, that likewise we should also be raised up with Him. In other words, we are dead with Him, and we are buried with Him in this Spiritual baptism, wherein we are risen. That is the baptism or cleansing for the dead. That is the context of 1st Corinthians chapter 15. And that is the understanding of this passage and our hope for the resurrection to Life.

We are identified with Christ and have his righteousness imputed to us by being baptized in the Spirit of God. For the sake of the dead, we are made alive in the Spirit.


Conclusion

The problem with interpreting the scriptures is not in the alleged obscure or ambiguous language. God has not inspired confusion, the real problem is in man not this passage. It is man who takes the passages in question out of total context, and then teaches confused and mis-informed doctrines. And he does this because 'he wants to.' Scripture considered honestly, carefully, and in context not only with itself, but with the whole of the Bible, usually presents it's own solutions. And they must be consistent and in agreement with the whole of the Bible. When we ask the fundamental questions, we get the Biblical answers. For example, what is the topic of the Chapter? What is God declaring in His reference to Baptism for the dead? Does the context show us that God is teaching about Baptism of living people for dead people? Does Baptizing a living person save them? If not, then how much less would it Save one who is already dead?

When these questions are answered honestly, it becomes self evident that this passage has nothing to do with the unbiblical practice of Christians being baptized for people who have died, but with baptism as it is the efficacy of the death and resurrection in Christ.

When Paul used the language of being 'baptized for the dead,' he was arguing for the resurrection from the dead by baptism. The context itself shows us that this is the truth, and we must so interpret the passage if we would understand it accurately. The context of the passage is the resurrection, and this interpretation is not only consistent with that context, but speaks specifically to it. On the other hand, if we (like some others) were to conclude that God was teaching that we may be baptized for, or as proxies on behalf the dead persons, then have a twofold problem.

1. We not only have a doctrine which is nowhere else spoken of in all of scripture, but we force God to introduce an entirely new subject into this context 'with only this one sentence,' and then never speaks of it again anywhere.

2. We have a doctrine which is contradictory to the rest of the Bible. The Holy Bible declares very unambiguously that it is impossible for one to be Saved without faith in Jesus Christ as Savior. No one after death can be saved by the action of someone who is alive. 

The teaching that men can be Saved merely by an act of another man participating in water baptism, is not only unbiblical (John 14:6), it is anti-biblical. It is unreasonable to draw such conclusions about this text, based on the scripture alone (Sola Scriptura), therefore this doctrine is obviously born from the mind of men, and not of God.

This passage is simply another illustration of the well established doctrine of baptism of the Spirit, and all that this entails. In baptism, the Christian is risen from the dead. For this is the purpose, and the hope of the resurrection (Rom. 6:3-6) which the sacrament of water baptism signifies. We are baptized for the sake of the dead, that in that baptism, the dead are made alive. That's why Paul said, else if the dead don't rise (resurrection), why be baptized for the dead? Since our baptism is for the resurrection of the dead. Then our baptism means nothing if the dead do not really rise.

This is the Glorious truth that Christ did not die in vain, He died that we could die in him, and be risen with Him, that death would have no more power over us. This is the benefit of baptism for the dead. The old body must be put to death, buried, and resurrected to new life. This is the Biblical definition of being 'baptized for the dead.' This passage I believe is Paul illustrating to the Church just why we are baptized into Christ. And that reason is that we receive life everlasting through His death and resurrection.

May the Great and Omniscient Almighty God, who is gracious above all, give us the wisdom and knowledge to rightly divide His Word of truth.

Amen!
Peace,

Copyright ©2001 Tony Warren


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## Reformed Covenanter (Nov 26, 2007)

CalvinandHodges said:


> Hi:
> 
> Does anyone have a clue concerning 1 Cor. 15:29:
> 
> ...



Pick up twenty commentaries and you will get twenty different answers. If they don't know, I don't know.


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## sgs1973 (Nov 26, 2007)

It is my understanding that Paul is asking why they would believe in the practice of cermonial washing after coming in contact with the dead if they did not believe that the real cleansing was yet to come. Why picture victory over death if there is not victory over death. The question he was asking seemed to be a reference to a practice they understood well....so why would you picture a cleansing from death if you did not believe you can be cleansed from death.


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## CalvinandHodges (Nov 26, 2007)

Greetings:

Thanks for all of those answers. As I was looking into Matthew Henry, Matthew Poole, John Calvin, and looking up the Greek words I came across the definition for "huper" translated "for" in the passage.

The term "huper" has two essential meanings: 1. "for" or "on behalf of" and 2. "above" or "superior to." I think if we take the second meaning the passage becomes clear:

"Since what shall they do who are baptized superior to the dead if at all the dead are not raised? Why are they baptized superior to the dead," this would be a literal reading.

Baptism symbolizing resurrection from the dead is superior to death itself. Thus, Paul's argument is that if there is no resurrection from the dead, then how can the Corinthians teach that baptism (which symbolizes the resurrection) be considered superior to death?

I have to admit that this is a unique understanding of the passage which I have not read in any commentary (though I have not read all of the commentaries), and it is something that I just thought of after much consideration. Thus, I am very leery of this interpretation.

Grace and Peace,

-CH


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## Poimen (Nov 27, 2007)

Robert:

"The dead" in 1 Corinthians 15:29 is in the genitive case which rules out the second meaning. The second meaning 'above' or 'superior' would only apply if the the noun was in the accusative.

As to your first question, A.T. Robertson states that there are 30 different interpretations for this verse. So I hesitate to offer a definitive answer. I would state however:

1) The spiritual interpretation may take in to consideration the larger context and teaching of the NT, but ignores Paul's basic point in the immediate context: physical death - vs. 26 & 32. It seems clear that he is saying that some are baptized for those who have already passed on (the real 'crisis' he addresses in the passage vs. 12ff).

2) We don't have enough historical/geographical information to properly explain what some in the Corinthian church were doing as they 'baptized for the dead'. 

3) Whatever it might mean, Paul does not actually command them to do so. In other words, there is no indication that this is normative for the NT church only that Paul says their current practice contradicts the statement of some who deny the bodily resurrection. 

Indeed baptism for the (physically) dead is neither commanded or even implied in any major baptismal text. Furthermore, there is no basis for the Mormon understanding of this verse other than the traditions which they have invented.


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## MW (Nov 27, 2007)

"Hoi baptizomenoi" is undoubtedly a specific class of people. Then in ver. 30, by the use of "hemeis," the apostle adds his own experience. The use of this pronoun with the cumulative conjunction "kai" indicates that the two experiences shared a similar vanity if the dead did not rise. This being the case, it would be most natural from a grammatical point of view to take "the dead" in ver. 29 to be those who had given themselves up to die for the faith. This fits in well with the apostle's subsequent statement that he was perpetually risking his life for the faith. On this interpretation, "baptised" would be understood in a merely figurative sense, such as it is used by Christ when He speaks of His own death as a baptism He must be baptised with, that is, which He must willingly give Himself over to. The sense then would be, "Else, what shall they do which are willingly giving themselves over to the state of the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then giving themselves over to the state of the dead? And why are we ourselves risking our own lives every moment?"


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## py3ak (Nov 27, 2007)

Candlish takes it that they are baptized to fill up the room of those who have died in the faith: they are identifying in the cause which brought death to some of their number. Even though some in the church have fallen, their place is taken by new converts, also willing to hazard their lives for the hope of the resurrection.


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## CalvinandHodges (Nov 27, 2007)

Poimen said:


> Robert:
> 
> "The dead" in 1 Corinthians 15:29 is in the genitive case which rules out the second meaning. The second meaning 'above' or 'superior' would only apply if the the noun was in the accusative.
> 
> ...



Thanks.

I figured there would be a problem somewhere being that no one else thought of it.



-CH


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