# Does baptism require a biblical Gospel?



## Scott1 (Aug 27, 2008)

> Westminster Confession of Faith
> 
> Chapter XXVIII
> Of Baptism
> ...





In light of the Confession's summary of doctrine contained in Scripture, does a valid Christian Baptism require:

1) That the church administering it hold to a biblical doctrine of the Trinity?
(12% of respondents in a recent PB poll said it did not)

2) That the church administering it hold to a biblical doctrine of the Gospel?
(58% of respondents said it did not)

Scripturally, why or why not?


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## Scott1 (Aug 27, 2008)

Scripture proofs

Westminster Confession of Faith

Chapter XXVIII
Of Baptism





> [1] MAT 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.
> 
> [2] 1CO 12:13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
> 
> ...


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## Scott1 (Aug 28, 2008)

> II. The outward element to be used in this sacrament is water, wherewith the party is to be baptized, in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, *by a minister of the Gospel*, lawfully called thereunto.[9]


[emphasis added]



> In light of the Confession's summary of doctrine contained in Scripture, does a valid Christian Baptism require:
> 
> 2) That the church administering it hold to a biblical doctrine of the Gospel?
> (58% of respondents said it did not)



It would seem that in order to be valid, the church administering the sacrament would need to hold a biblical view of the Gospel. The Confession seems to imply that that a baptism performed by someone not "a minister of the Gospel" and not "lawfully called unto" is not a valid administration of this sacrament.

Input from some theologically trained here would be helpful.


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