# What is the 'exact' justice of God?



## KMK (Oct 17, 2008)

Both WCF and LBC chapter 11:3 contain these words:



> that both the _exact_ justice, and rich grace of God might be glorified in the justification of sinners.



In what sense is the word 'exact' being used here? Does it mean 'fulfilled' or 'precise'? And what does that mean exactly? (Pun intended)

Is WLC Q #71 giving us a hint when it says:



> Although Christ, by his obedience and death, did make a _proper, real, and full_ satisfaction to God’s justice in the behalf of them that are justified


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## Anton Bruckner (Oct 17, 2008)

Exact refers to the purity of God's justice in its public manifestation. On this side of eternity those who get justice usually get it mingled with grace. It is usually approximate. There can only be general justice on this side of eternity never perfect justice. e.g. Civil Laws are only to punish theft, but on that Day, God will punish the thief for his theft and for his greed in a public manner so that all can see.


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## timmopussycat (Oct 17, 2008)

KMK said:


> Both WCF and LBC chapter 11:3 contain these words:
> 
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> 
> ...



The Scripture proof the Divines supplied [Rom. 3:26] tells the tale.
The exact justice of God here refers to his awarding the appropriate punishment for the sins committed i.e., the death of the sinner [in the death of Christ].


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## MW (Oct 17, 2008)

KMK said:


> Is WLC Q #71 giving us a hint when it says:
> 
> 
> 
> > Although Christ, by his obedience and death, did make a _proper, real, and full_ satisfaction to God’s justice in the behalf of them that are justified



Yes, and it also leads to an important distinction, namely, that while exact justice against sin was satisfied, nevertheless exact justice against the sinner was not pursued. The soul that sins shall die but grace substituted a Surety in the place of the elect. That substitution was purely an act of grace demonstrating clearly that the satisfaction of justice was not an absolute necessity of nature.


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## KMK (Oct 17, 2008)

armourbearer said:


> KMK said:
> 
> 
> > Is WLC Q #71 giving us a hint when it says:
> ...



I feel like you are trying to make a point about something but, as usual, I am too obtuse to make the connection. Could you elaborate as to why this distinction is so important?


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## MW (Oct 17, 2008)

KMK said:


> I feel like you are trying to make a point about something but, as usual, I am too obtuse to make the connection. Could you elaborate as to why this distinction is so important?



The Larger Catechism answer which was quoted begins with "although." To simply read the concessional point is to miss the lesson of that Catechism answer, which is the manifestation of the grace of God in justification. Because God has purposed to save sinners by making satisfaction to His justice against sin, many argue that such satisfaction was an absolute necessity arising out of His just nature; but He does not demand strict justice by making the soul that sinned to die, thereby demonstrating that free grace is more than the satisfaction of justice and therefore cannot be considered an absolute necessity of nature.


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## KMK (Oct 18, 2008)

armourbearer said:


> KMK said:
> 
> 
> > I feel like you are trying to make a point about something but, as usual, I am too obtuse to make the connection. Could you elaborate as to why this distinction is so important?
> ...





> Q. 71. How is justification an act of God’s free grace?
> 
> A. Although Christ...did make a proper, real, and full satisfaction to God’s justice in the behalf of them that are justified; yet in as much as God accepteth the satisfaction from a surety...and did provide this surety...their justification is to them of free grace.



I see what you mean. Do these people argue that God is obligated to justify universally?


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## MW (Oct 19, 2008)

KMK said:


> Do these people argue that God is obligated to justify universally?



They argue that God could not have chosen to forgive sin without satisfaction being made to His justice.


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## KMK (Oct 19, 2008)

armourbearer said:


> KMK said:
> 
> 
> > Do these people argue that God is obligated to justify universally?
> ...



Would they agree with WCF 8:5?



> The Lord Jesus, by His perfect obedience, and sacrifice of Himself, which He through the eternal Spirit, once offered up unto God, has fully satisfied the justice of His Father; and purchased, not only reconciliation, but an everlasting inheritance in the kingdom of heaven, *for those whom the Father has given unto Him*.


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## MW (Oct 19, 2008)

KMK said:


> armourbearer said:
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> 
> > KMK said:
> ...



It depends. Some of them allow a universal reference in the atonement, but others hold to lmited atonement; they say the atonement was absolutely necessary if God was going to forgive the sins of the elect so that He could not have chosen another way to save them.


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