# Why are these so different?



## Kim G (Sep 25, 2008)

Last night during our church's prayer meeting, our pastor read from I Samuel 17, verse 29.


In the KJV, it says--And David said, What have I now done? *Is there not a cause?*

Same with the NKJ--And David said, “What have I done now? *Is there not a cause?”*

However, all of the other versions, including the Bible in French and Spanish, says the following:


NIV--"Now what have I done?" said David. *"Can't I even speak?"*

NAS--But David said, "What have I done now? *Was it not just a question?"* 

ESV--And David said, "What have I done now? *Was it not but a word?"*

NLT--"What have I done now?” David replied. *“I was only asking a question!” *

French, Louis Segond--David répondit: Qu'ai-je donc fait? *ne puis-je pas parler ainsi?*

Spanish, Riena-Valera--David respondió: ¿Qué he hecho yo ahora? *¿No es esto mero hablar?*

What's going on here? What in the original language allows for such a different translation?


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## Davidius (Sep 25, 2008)

Luther translates it as...


David antwortete: Was habe ich dir nun getan? Ist mir's nicht befohlen? (David answered, "What now have I done to you? Was I not ordered?")


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## larryjf (Sep 25, 2008)

It's just a difference in translating the same underlying word.
The meaning of the word translated is "speech" or "word" so by implication it can mean "cause"


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## TimV (Sep 25, 2008)

The Afrikaans version translated from the TR is also better than the KJV, "Ek vra maar net" "I just asked".

Another case of how using a foreign language, specifically 16th century English makes something difficult to understand. The Strong's word for "cause" is 1697, _dabar_ and it means to say something.


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