# Expiation vs. Propitiation



## shackleton (Dec 3, 2008)

I noticed when reading older theologians such as Hodge and Turretin that they use the word expiation to refer to what Christ has done and what he accomplished. But recently it is all about propitiation. 

Is this due in some way to liberalism? Since expiation means to cover sin with no indication of the wrath of God being satisfied but propitiation implies appeasing the wrath of God.


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## Prufrock (Dec 3, 2008)

The old theologians referred to Christ's death as a propitiation as well. 

But I guess I can't really comment, because I hadn't noticed that it was "all about propitiation" today.


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## ADKing (Dec 3, 2008)

Christ's atonement involved both.

Propitiation is satisfying the wrath of the Father against sin

Expiation is removing sin from his people

Leviticus 16 is a great example of both elements in atonement. On the Day of Atonement one goat was sacrificed to satisfy for sin and the other was released into the wilderness so sin would be removed. Christ joins these two elements in his one sacrifce.

Reactions: Like 1


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## Marrow Man (Dec 3, 2008)

The tendency toward more modern liberal views of the atonement is to use expiation (the removal of sin) almost exclusively (if not exclusively). The idea seems to be that propitiation (satisfying/turning aside the wrath of God) is deemed to be a primitive belief that casts negativity on the love of God. Of course, this is a weak, watered-down, vanilla sort of love that fails to understand the radical nature of rebellious sin against our holy Creator. It fails to understand that God's love is a merciful love and a just love as well -- and that the Son of God Himself is the One enduring the Father's just love on our behalf. And according to our Savior, the greatest love that a man can show is to lay down his life for his friends.

Whenever I am preaching and I come across the word "propitiation," I always follow it with the definition "turns aside the wrath of God."


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## Wannabee (Dec 3, 2008)

TDNT does an excellent treatment on this. In attempting to grasp it I also came to the conclusion that, in the NT, it includes both. The morphology and history surrounding the thought process of the Hebrew, the LXX and the Greek of the NT times seems to point in this direction. I can't remember nuances now, but it really is a wonderful study.


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## timmopussycat (Dec 3, 2008)

shackleton said:


> I noticed when reading older theologians such as Hodge and Turretin that they use the word expiation to refer to what Christ has done and what he accomplished. But recently it is all about propitiation.
> 
> Is this due in some way to liberalism? Since expiation means to cover sin with no indication of the wrath of God being satisfied but propitiation implies appeasing the wrath of God.



Accoding to JI Packer's "Knowing God" that is the fundamental distinction behind the modern use of the terms.


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## Jon Lake (Dec 3, 2008)

Good thread.


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## shackleton (Dec 3, 2008)

The Catholic Study Bible (NAB) Romans 3:25, "Whom God has set forth as an *expiation*, through faith, by his blood..."

*Note:Expiation-this rendering is preferable to propitiation, which suggests hostility on the part of God toward sinners. As Paul will be at pains to point out it is humanity that is hostile to God. 

More literal translations use propitiation, NIV uses "Christ's sacrifice of atonement." 

The notion is that God is not angry or has an offense against man. That God is setting up in heaven with his arms out in love hoping that man will respond. 

The Catholic Bible goes on to say that it is man's responsibility to make amends with God since he is the offending party. This is true but it is the man Christ who has satisfied God's anger towards man with his obedience, death and resurrection and when we have faith in him we are seen as obedient. We cannot do anything on our own to remedy the broken relationship between God and man. However in works oriented beliefs, man can and needs to.


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