# 2 Peter 2; "the one who bought them"



## turmeric (Sep 7, 2009)

Mom has a question, how could Christ have "bought" the false prophets spoken of in these verses if they apostatized? I read her the stuff from my super-duper-ESV form Monergism, but it wasn't compelling. Any help?
Thanks!


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## Marrow Man (Sep 7, 2009)

This article is good and may give a more satisfying answer.

The things to keep in mind are: 1) the verb used (_agorazo_ -- "bought") pertains more to "ownership" rather than redemption/atonement; 2) Peter is probably making a reference to statements from Deuteronomy 32 in the passage; 3) "Master" (_depotes_) probably is referring to God and not specifically to Christ in the passage.

Also, here is another (much longer) article that deals with the verse.


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## A.J. (Sep 7, 2009)

In the past, I came across this short post from the Reformation Theology blog summarizing the comments of Dr. James White of aomin.org on 2 Peter 2:1. The summary is helpful in my opinion. 



> Regarding 2 Peter 2:1, Dr. White writes:
> 
> 1) Derive soteriological truths from soteriological passages (this isn't);
> 2) "Lord" is δεσπότης (despotes--sovereign title) not κύριος (kurios--soteriological title);
> ...



Deuteronomy 32:5-6 says,

They have corrupted themselves, their spot is not the spot of his children: they are a perverse and crooked generation.

Do ye thus requite the LORD, O foolish people and unwise? is not he thy father that hath *bought* thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee?​
God "bought" the Israelites (in the Deuteronomy 32:5-6 sense) but we know that many of them were reprobates. Similarly, the fact that the false prophets in 2 Peter 2:1 were "bought" does not necessarily mean that Christ in fact died for them.


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