# Question about Easter.



## Free Christian (Sep 18, 2013)

Hello everyone again. As I was looking and searching on Bible translations I came across this explanation for the use of the word Easter in the King James. I had always thought it was wrong, but even so I will still look for things in case I am not right in what I think.
I came across this explanation.
Easter was used by the writers of the King James because it was the days of Unleavened Bread and the actual Passover had gone.
That Herod waited, not for the Passover to go, because it had already, but for the worship/festival of Astarte or Ostara/Ishtar to pass. 
And as that was a pagan festival the word Easter was used as it has its origin in the name Eostre, Ostara, Astarte or Ishtar (all being the same thing).
That had they used Passover, which had already gone, it would have been incorrect. 
Also that in the worship of Astarte was the baking of cakes in honour of her and that is where the hot cross bun in Easter has its origin.
They quoted from Jeremiah 7 V 18 and from 44 vs 18 & 19.
That Easter came from Astarte, Ishtar sometimes later called Eostre, as did the baking of the cakes and the use of the word was correct as at that time the festival to Astarte was upon them which Herod recognised.
Is that where it came from, the use of Easter? Could that be why it was used?


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## irresistible_grace (Sep 18, 2013)

It is my understanding that when William Tyndale used the Germanic word ēastre/Easter in the New Testament it was only for the places where paschal was found "after" Christ's resurrection.


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## Jerusalem Blade (Sep 18, 2013)

You're right, Jessica. 

Brett, in this thread, http://www.puritanboard.com/f63/pascha-acts-12-4-a-46832/, I refer you to posts #10, 12, 16, and 17 for a linguistic and textual analysis. 

Caveat: in the article I linked by Gretchen Passantino, although I appreciate her linguistic insight, I do not go along with her views on the "religious holidays".


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## Free Christian (Sep 18, 2013)

Thanks Jessica and Steve. I checked the link in post 12 and it makes sense. I guess its time perhaps I view it a bit different. Not sure though that I will ever do Easter again because of it, definitely not the eggs and buns and eat not this, eat this only stuff, but Ill never say never to the other part of it. Who knows where God will lead me in that regards? It looks then that Easter, in the light of that article, is perhaps the better term to use on that occasion than is used in other translations where they use Passover!
Oh Ohh , the translation thing again.  
Thanks again for the replies.


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## GloriousBoaz (Sep 18, 2013)

Christ died on passover so he couldn't have raised on passover but it was still passover week, so technically "passover" could have been used. If you look at Leviticus 23:5 on the first month Nisan (Abib) on the 14th day was the Passover meal, then the 15th is the feast of unleavened bread which extended 7 days and was also referred to not only as the feast of unleavened bread but also as the passover, see Luke 22:1.


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