# Purpose of Heb. 1:4?



## chuckd (Sep 30, 2013)

_Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they._

Having asserted that Jesus was "appointed heir of all things", who "made the worlds", "being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high",

what was the purpose of v. 4 (and into Ch. 2)? Why would it need to be proven that Jesus, having in his person and work things reserved for God alone, is superior to angels? Wouldn't it be taken for granted, especially to a Jewish audience? It's like Jerry Maguire's "you had me at 'hello'."

You had me at "he is God."


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## Peairtach (Sep 30, 2013)

Maybe it's to do with Him in His humanity. Although He was always God, there was a movement in His humanity from humiliation to exaltation.

Sent from my HTC Wildfire using Tapatalk 2


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## Phil D. (Sep 30, 2013)

Some biblical scholars plausibly see it as an indirect refutation of various Gnostic sects that were emerging about that time, in which the exaltation and veneration of angels was prominent.


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## Jack K (Sep 30, 2013)

I've read that First Century Judaism was rather angel-happy. There was much thinking about angels and reports of angel encounters. The appearance of Jesus could easily be treated as just another, greater angel encounter... and that in itself would have created much excitement and made him much revered. But the auther says no, who we have in Jesus is far, far beyond even that. So even though the assertion of deity in verse 3 would seem to make the better-than-angels stuff unnecessary on an _intellectual_ level, on an _emotional excitement_ level the comparison with angels might still pack a punch.


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## littlepeople (Sep 30, 2013)

Like Jack, I think that he is enforcing the point from multiple angles. Belovedness from God, authority as law giver, judge over creation (including the angels) - In these ways Jesus' superiority is contrasted. Its a multi-faceted appeal of the hearers to not give to angels the honor reserved for Jesus.


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## chuckd (Sep 30, 2013)

Interesting. I understand that a contrast must be made between the ministers of the law & gospel: angels & Christ. How much more then shall we obey the gospel? The confusion arose when I read the proof that Christ is better, when he was established to be God in vs. 1-3. It should go without saying.

Found this in John Owen's commentary:


> The comparison entered on between the Lord Christ and angels must be either with respect unto their natures, or unto their dignity, office, power, and glory. If the comparison be of nature with nature, then it must be either in respect of the divine or human nature of Christ. If it should be of the divine nature of Christ with the nature of angels, then it is not a comparison of proportion, as between two natures agreeing in any general kind of being, — as do the nature of a man and a worm, — but a comparison only manifesting a difference and distance without any
> proportion.
> ...
> Neither is the comparison between the human nature of Christ and the nature of angels; for that absolutely considered and in itself is inferior to the angelical; whence, in regard of his participation of it, he is said to be made “lower than the angels,” chap. 2.
> ...


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## Peairtach (Sep 30, 2013)

In His human nature, in its state of humiliation, He _was_ a little lower than the angels in certain senses.


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## MW (Sep 30, 2013)

Acts 7:53, "Who have received the law by the disposition of angels, and have not kept it." Gal. 3:19, "and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator."

The perpetually binding nature of the law, including temple, priesthood, and sacrifices, was strengthened by the argument that it came through angelic intermediaries. So the superiority of Christ to angels is discussed first and then the superiority to Moses.


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## chuckd (Oct 1, 2013)

Why would it be _strengthened_ by this argument when it being authored by God is a far superior argument? Two letters are sent by the king by two messengers. What is the purpose of disputing the superiority/inferiority of the messengers when it is taken for granted that the message was penned by the king? And in our case, the latter messenger is the king himself?


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## MW (Oct 1, 2013)

chuckd said:


> Why would it be _strengthened_ by this argument when it being authored by God is a far superior argument? Two letters are sent by the king by two messengers. What is the purpose of disputing the superiority/inferiority of the messengers when it is taken for granted that the message was penned by the king? And in our case, the latter messenger is the king himself?



1. All revelation is divine but in divers manners. It is from the superior communication of the revelation by the Son that the superiority of His administration is demonstrated. This superiority itself rests on the superiority of His person over the angels.

2. The king had a temporary use of temple, priesthood and sacrifices and intended that they should be superseded by a superior administration. Those to whom Hebrews was penned required convincing that this was the case. Hence the "better" language of the epistle.

3. The king was made lower than the angels for a little time (chap. 2). It is as God-man that He makes reconciliation with God for His people.

His superiority is the very point being demonstrated. With the hindsight of a developed Christian theology we are able to rest on the statement of fact, but it is worth going deeper for the more sure and detailed understanding of what we confess.


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## chuckd (Oct 2, 2013)

Thanks. Very helpful.


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