# Agape translated as charity in the KJV



## Ne Oublie (Feb 24, 2010)

In 1 Corinthians 13, in the KJV, the greek word AGAPE is translated as charity. The same greek word in the end of John, is translated as love. Would anyone know the reason for this? If there is one.

I am curious as I would like to be more clear in my use of words. Some seem more packed with meaning or more specific as opposed to the words that the meaning is deemed more by context each and every time. Say for instance, the words that we have demeaned and seem so subjective in our day and age because of the way they have been used. Like longsuffering seems so much more meaningful than patience. This may seem like a prejudice but I don't mean it to be. I am just searching for clarity in words and their usage.




(the 2003 version KJV translates agape as love in 1 Corinthians 13.)


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## DMcFadden (Feb 24, 2010)

Current English use of "charity" deals primarily with a semantic field related to alms giving (positively) and state assistance of the poor ("welfare" in both the positive and negative senses). The early 17th century usage and nuance fit the context of 1 Cor 13.


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## JML (Feb 24, 2010)

My question would be: Since words like this have changed so much in meaning over the last 400 years, would it lead someone to misunderstand the Scripture because the word charity today has a different meaning. Someone, if they were not taught otherwise, could read 1 Corinthians 13 and think that giving to the poor is the greatest. By the way, I am not downplaying giving to the poor but just saying that 1 Corinthians 13 is not speaking of it. Although, I guess it would be included in love.


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## Jimmy the Greek (Feb 24, 2010)

I read where the KJV translates _agape_ as _charity_ 27 times in the NT, so this verse is not an isolated case. I think we would do well to see more of a connection between agape (love) and the idea of charity. For example, charity clearly connotes an _act of the will_ and the idea of _selfless giving_ both of which are inherent in biblical _agape_. The word "love" in today's vernacular is sadly short of the biblcal concept of _agape_. Just my $0.02.


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## rbcbob (Feb 24, 2010)

Charity, from a.d.1137 forward meant “loving kindness”, “love of God and fellow men”, “kindness, especially to the poor, etc.- From Chambers Dictionary of Etymology


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## Contra_Mundum (Feb 24, 2010)

The KJV translators felt no obligation to translate one Gk word (or expression) by the same English expression every time it was used. "Charity" in 1Cor.13 was deemed eminently suitable for that context. True "charity" was understood as love selflessly expressed, precisely the sense in which it is employed in 1Cor.13.

The simpler "love" adequately conveys the sense of the author in other places.


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## CalvinandHodges (Mar 8, 2010)

Hi:

I ditto all of the above posts, and will add that the English word "Charity" comes from the Latin "Charis" which means "Grace." Thus, the KJ translators are linking love and grace together.

Blessings,

Rob


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## JennyG (Mar 9, 2010)

Secular modern thinking in general would probably find "charity" a rather cold word and thus inappropriate to convey the meaning - but ironically, I think there is now potentially more of a problem with "love".
As Jim said,


> The word "love" in today's vernacular is sadly short of the biblcal concept of agape.


Besides being too short in some directions, you could say it's uncomfortably too slack and wide in others, and comes trailing all kinds of rogue connotations, - altogether, not at all to be counted on to convey what Paul meant


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## NRB (Mar 25, 2010)

I'm no scholar, but it's not confusing to me.....and honestly in my KJV the center column notes link it to the word "love" just in case people do get confused.
I think charity fits the context best.


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