# Hebrew grammar in Obadiah ...



## amishrockstar (Jun 26, 2007)

This is my first post on PB...
I have a question about Obadiah (1) which comes about because I've been reading a book entitled "The Trinity: Evidence and Issues" by Dr. Robert Morey. He doesn't have this passage in his book, but I've got the idea of "the Trinity" on the brain and while I was reading Obadiah this passage kinda jump out at me...

"The vision of Obadiah.
Thus says the Lord GOD concerning Edom:
We have heard a report from the LORD,
and a messenger has been sent among 
the nations..."

While looking at the passage, I saw this "Thus says the *Lord GOD*... *We* have heard... *from the LORD*" ...Is the second "LORD" in the text an allusion to Christ? In a way it seems to be similar to God speaking with God (the Son) in the garden or in other passages such as "...the *LORD* rained on Sodom and Gomorrah sulfur and fire from the *LORD* out of heaven" (Gen.19:24) etc. The trinitarian would expect to find such passages as Gen 19 while the unitarian would not.
So is Obadiah (1) a trinitarian text? Are there multiple (Lords) in the text like when David said "the LORD said to my Lord" (Psa.110)? What saith the Hebrew?
THANKS!
Matthew


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## VictorBravo (Jun 26, 2007)

amishrockstar said:


> This is my first post on PB...
> I have a question about Obadiah (1) which comes about because I've been reading a book entitled "The Trinity: Evidence and Issues" by Dr. Robert Morey. He doesn't have this passage in his book, but I've got the idea of "the Trinity" on the brain and while I was reading Obadiah this passage kinda jump out at me...
> 
> "The vision of Obadiah.
> ...



Looking at my Hebrew bible, the second "LORD" is the same word as the first "GOD": יְהוִה (Jaweh). The first "Lord" is 'adonai'. So I wouldn't take the second "LORD" too far. 

It is different from Psalm 110, in which the word "LORD" is translated from "Jaweh" and the word "Lord" is translated from "adonai."


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## Romans922 (Jun 26, 2007)

The LORD in the OT is the English name for Yahweh, the name the LORD gave to Moses. It is a reference to God, covenant God. Thus it is referring to God the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. 

I think some people get thrown off in the Bible sometimes when it says God said this or did that and they think only of God the Father, and sometimes it is true, but often times it would be right to think of God (Trinity) and Lord (Trinity). Which then makes you really confused because it is hard to think of God (Trinity) or Lord (Trinity) because you want to simplify things and think of one person, but that is our God (incomprehensible). 

I'll let others talk about if in this verse it is specifically referencing Christ or not, or just the Trinity in general.


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## amishrockstar (Jun 26, 2007)

*Thanks for the responses!


I guess I'm just getting 'hung-up' on the "Lord" saying that We have heard from the LORD... 

one is capitalized and one is lower case in the ESV, which is exactly how Psalm 110 has it. *


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## Contra_Mundum (Jun 26, 2007)

I took a look at the passage, and I developed a theory on the construction. Then I went to the translations. They are confirmatory of my thesis, generally.

Versions such as NAS, NKJ, NIV--all of them treat the latter portion of verse 1 as an aside, set off by parentheses or dashes. The "word of the Lord" (in the first person) begins in verse 2.

So, the names "Lord Jehovah" and "Jehovah" are not refering to distinct personages in this instance.


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