# Romans 5:18



## raderag (Aug 16, 2005)

I am having a difficult time understanding this verse:



> Romans 5:18. Therefore, as by the offense of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the *free gift came upon all men* unto justification of life.



Calvin's commentaries:


> 18. Therefore, etc. This is a defective sentence; it will be complete if the words condemnation and justification be read in the nominative case; as doubtless you must do in order to complete the sense. We have here the general conclusion from the preceding comparison; for, omitting the mention of the intervening explanation, he now completes the comparison, "As by the offense of one we were made (constitute) sinners; so the righteousness of Christ is efficacious to justify us. He does not say the righteousness -- dikaiosu>nhn, but the justification -- dikai>wma, 1 of Christ, in order to remind us that he was not as an individual just for himself, but that the righteousness with which he was endued reached farther, in order that, by conferring this gift, he might enrich the faithful. *He makes this favor common to all, because it is propounded to all, and not because it is in reality extended to all; for though Christ suffered for the sins of the whole world, and is offered through God's benignity indiscriminately to all, yet all do not receive him.* 2



Calvin *seems* to be teaching conditional election/universal atonement here, but I know I am missing something as he teaches to opposite elsewhere. It doesn't sound like "common grace" as I understand it.

Mathew Henry's commentary:


> Secondly, In like manner, by the righteousness and obedience of one (and that one is Jesus Christ, the second Adam), are many made righteous, and so the free gift comes upon all. It is observable how the apostle inculcates this truth, and repeats it again and again, as a truth of very great consequence. Here observe, 1. The nature of Christ´s righteousness, how it is brought in; it is by his obedience. The disobedience of the first Adam ruined us, the obedience of the second Adam saves us,"”his obedience to the law of mediation, which was that he should fulfil all righteousness, and then make his soul an offering for sin. By his obedience to this law he wrought out a righteousness for us, satisfied God´s justice, and so made way for us into his favour. 2. The fruit of it. (1.) *There is a free gift come upon all men, that is, it is made and offered promiscuously to all. The salvation wrought is a common salvation; the proposals are general, the tender free; whoever will may come, and take of these waters of life. This free gift is to all believers, upon their believing, unto justification of life.* It is not only a justification that frees from death, but that entitles to life. (2.) Many shall be made righteous"”many compared with one, or as many as belong to the election of grace, which, though but a few as they are scattered up and down in the world, yet will be a great many when they come all together. KatastatheÂµsontai"”they shall be constituted righteous, as by letters patent. Now the antithesis between these two, our ruin by Adam and our recovery by Christ, is obvious enough.



Henry seems to say that it is just common grace, but then seems to contradict himself in saying that it is effectual for all believers.


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## Poimen (Aug 16, 2005)

Isn't his whole point, proceeding from Romans 3:21ff. to prove that we are justified by faith and not works? Romans 4 deals with this matter subjectively: how justification is received (by the alone instrument of faith) and Romans 5 deals with the matter objectively: how justification is accomplished (the righteousness of Christ being the ground of our justification). 

Paul says, explicitly, in Romans 4:24 

"But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, *if we believe on him* that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead"

Then Romans 5:1-2

"Therefore being justified *by faith*, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ: by whom also we have *access by faith* into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God."

So if you separate Romans 4 from Romans 5 you get universalism; separate Romans 5 from Romans 4 you get justification because of faith (Arminianism). 

It seems to me that all Calvin and Henry are saying is that Christ's atonement is available for all ("offered") but only received by faith. I think we would be comfortable with that.

[Edited on 8-16-2005 by poimen]

[Edited on 8-16-2005 by poimen]


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## raderag (Aug 16, 2005)

> _Originally posted by poimen_
> Isn't his whole point, proceeding from Romans 3:21ff. to prove that we are justified by faith and not works? Romans 4 deals with this matter subjectively: how justification is received (by the alone instrument of faith) and Romans 5 deals with the matter objectively: how justification is accomplished (the righteousness of Christ being the ground of our justification).
> 
> Paul says, explicitly, in Romans 4:24
> ...



But the verse says that Christ represented all of mankind. hmmm. I think I see what you are saying, but am having trouble wrapping my brain around it.


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## Peter (Aug 16, 2005)

I remember reading that in Calvin's com. actually the editor makes note of it and says that it seems like Calvin is teaching universal atonement. I don't see that, after all, he is only using the language of scripture.


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## Poimen (Aug 16, 2005)

> _Originally posted by raderag_
> 
> 
> > _Originally posted by poimen_
> ...



Please note that I am not being sarcastic here, but Paul never says all of mankind, he just uses the word "all." Now there is a similarity between Adam and Christ: one representative for his posterity and the other for his own. 

Verse 1-10 tell us who Christ is representing: 'we' 'us.' Believers!

Note especially vs. 10 & 11: "For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life. And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement.

Christ represents his 'all' and Adam represents his 'all.' They don't both have to be inclusive of all people who have ever lived to be 'all.' 

Still wondering? Compare the phrase 'unto all' as to how it is used in other chapters in Romans:

Romans 3:22 even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference;

Romans 10:12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.

In both passages Paul is referring to the unity or union of Jews and Gentiles under the banner of one Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. Indeed Paul's point in Romans 4 (which obviously leads up to Romans 5) is to state that all who believe are children of Abraham and inherit the blessings promised to him in Christ. So 'all' those in Christ is universally inclusive insofar as people from all nations inherit the promise made to Abraham, which is no longer restricted to the Jewish people but 'all' peoples. 

[Edited on 8-16-2005 by poimen]


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