# Is the Word of God to be read by all?



## Mindaboo (May 2, 2010)

I am working through Joseph Pipa's study guide on the WCF and ran across this today. 

Q. 156. Is the Word of God to be read by all?
A. Although all are not to be permitted to read the word publicly to the congregation, yet all sorts of people are bound to read it apart by themselves, and with their families: to which end, the holy Scriptures are to be translated out of the original into vulgar languages.

What exactly does this mean? Who would be permitted? 

It seems to me that this is something that is to be protected and carefully thought out on the part of the Session. Any thoughts?


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## PuritanCovenanter (May 2, 2010)

I believe it is a separation of responsibilities and accountability. Nehemiah had Ezra read the scriptures in the OT. There was a reason for that. He was ordained.

BTW, would you listen to a reprobate read it publicly as an exhortation? I doubt it.


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## au5t1n (May 2, 2010)

Women, children, people who don't speak the language of the congregation (unless interpreted), congregants under discipline, unbelievers, etc.


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## Mindaboo (May 2, 2010)

> Women, children, people who don't speak the language of the congregation (unless interpreted), congregants under discipline, unbelievers, etc.



I agree with that. Obviously women and children would not be permitted. What about men in general? I agree with Randy that the men should be ordained. In our worship service the only men reading are ordained elders and the pastor, except at Christmas. I don't think we should make those exceptions and would think this question in the WCF would address that. Would it be appropriate to have a man who is a member in good standing read the Word of God?


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## Scott1 (May 2, 2010)

> Westminster Larger Catechism
> 
> Q. 156. Is the Word of God to be read by all?
> 
> ...



The Scripture proofs, and how they are positioned for each statement and/or proposition are helpful in understanding this.


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## au5t1n (May 2, 2010)

Mindaboo said:


> > Women, children, people who don't speak the language of the congregation (unless interpreted), congregants under discipline, unbelievers, etc.
> 
> 
> 
> I agree with that. Obviously women and children would not be permitted. What about men in general? I agree with Randy that the men should be ordained. In our worship service the only men reading are ordained elders and the pastor, except at Christmas. I don't think we should make those exceptions and would think this question in the WCF would address that. Would it be appropriate to have a man who is a member in good standing read the Word of God?


 
Yes, the Scripture permits unordained men to read the Word in the congregation (cf. 1 Cor. 14:26). Certainly the Session must approve of those who read. In my church, we have only one elder -- the pastor (we're a plant and not particularized yet).


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## NaphtaliPress (May 2, 2010)

See this thread from about a year back.
http://www.puritanboard.com/f67/public-scripture-reading-westminster-50833/#post654760


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## BlackCalvinist (May 3, 2010)

Mindaboo said:


> I am working through Joseph Pipa's study guide on the WCF and ran across this today.
> 
> Q. 156. Is the Word of God to be read by all?
> A. Although all are not to be permitted to read the word publicly to the congregation, yet all sorts of people are bound to read it apart by themselves, and with their families: to which end, the holy Scriptures are to be translated out of the original into vulgar languages.
> ...


 
*Although all are not to be permitted to read the word publicly to the congregatio*n = everyone in church is not permitted to read the scriptures publicly (that is, in the gathered corporate worship on Sunday mornings). I think the Westminster Divines (and scripture implicitly) include the preaching/teaching office and function under the auspices of 'read publicly to the congregation'. Thus, it would be restricted to those designated by the elders (including the elders) as to who would be permitted to 'read scripture publicly'. I'm guessing that scripture wasn't simply 'read' publicly in the 1600's, but read and _exposited_.

*yet all sorts of people are bound to read it apart by themselves, and with their families* - the responsibility of the individual believer is to read and exposit scripture for themselves to themselves and (in the case of parents), to their families. 

*to which end, the holy Scriptures are to be translated out of the original into vulgar languages* - this means that Mark Driscoll, circa 2004, should be a bible translator....no..wait, that's not right.... it means that the scriptures should be in the regular language of the people, as accurately faithful to the original text as possible.


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## nnatew24 (May 19, 2010)

(Late contribution here; sorry) - I'm wondering where in scripture would we see that women are not permitted to publicly read the scriptures. Yes, Paul says that women are to be silent, but they're not completely silent in that they participate in the singing --and in some cases public prayer (1 Cor 11:5). It seems to me that they are allowed to sing because they are following a certain script that does not lend itself to any teaching or authority...something that is likewise true in reading scripture. 

What got me thinking about this is how many see that Tim Keller often has women reading the scripture, though admittedly, he's not as 'Reformed' as some think.


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## BJClark (May 19, 2010)

Mindaboo;



> Q. 156. Is the Word of God to be read by all?
> A. Although all are not to be permitted to read the word publicly to the congregation, yet all sorts of people are bound to read it apart by themselves, and with their families: to which end, the holy Scriptures are to be translated out of the original into vulgar languages.
> 
> What exactly does this mean? Who would be permitted?
> ...



to me it appears very simply in public worship, Elders are to read the word..

In private, like at home, or when sharing the Gospel with someone outside the 'Worship Service" anyone and everyone should read and study it for themselves..


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## Curt (May 19, 2010)

BlackCalvinist said:


> *to which end, the holy Scriptures are to be translated out of the original into vulgar languages* - this means that Mark Driscoll, circa 2004, should be a bible translator....no..wait, that's not right.... it means that the scriptures should be in the regular language of the people, as accurately faithful to the original text as possible.


 
Yuk, yuk.


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