# Typo mystery in Durham on Rev. Clearly not a reference to 2 Samuel 6:23.



## NaphtaliPress (Dec 11, 2021)

Anyone have any better guesses on this? Clearly the passage about Michal being childless till her death. It requres the book chapter and verse to be wrong however, which rare, and Durham explicitly says last verse (I've inserted 23). I'm not satisfied I've got the correct place, but he does seem to be speaking about the meaning of the Greek word, which rules out OT passages. But I could not find a NT chapter that used the Greek word in the last verse.
But these plagues, being against obstinate contemners of the light of the Word, now such a spiritual smoke of ignorance and hardness of heart was on them, and possibly of darkness and contention in the church, so that through God’s judgment on them they fretted under these plagues and perished, but repented not, as we will see particularly observed [in] chapter 16. Or none could enter, etc.; that is, God would admit none to make intercession for preventing these plagues (as Moses and the priests in such cases entered the tabernacle to intercede), until the wrath threatened was executed; and so none could enter till then, will be this: they could never enter for that purpose, as the word is taken, 2 Samuel 6, verse last (v. 23).[1]


[1] This is clearly the wrong Scripture reference. Since Durham refers to be the meaning of a word as “to enter for that purpose,” he must be referring to a Greek text and the meaning of εἰσελθεῖν, and so, perhaps Hebrews 4:6 is in view?


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## 83r17h (Dec 11, 2021)

NaphtaliPress said:


> I'm not satisfied I've got the correct place, but he does seem to be speaking about the meaning of the Greek word, which rules out OT passages.



Could he mean a passage in the Septuagint? The same word (but different form) is in the last verse of 2 Samuel 14, and the last verse of chapter 15. Not sure about if the meaning fits in either case though. Perhaps in chapter 14, where the verb is used of Joab and Absalom before David, seeking his forgiveness, and up until then David had refused to allow Absalom entry to see him.


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## NaphtaliPress (Dec 11, 2021)

83r17h said:


> Could he mean a passage in the Septuagint? The same word (but different form) is in the last verse of 2 Samuel 14, and the last verse of chapter 15. Not sure about if the meaning fits in either case though. Perhaps in chapter 14, where the verb is used of Joab and Absalom before David, seeking his forgiveness, and up until then David had refused to allow Absalom entry to see him.


I had not thought of check the Septuagint, which usually Durham or any author of that day would note explicitly if they were doing so. But given the difficulty it's certainly worth considering I'll take a look; thanks!


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## NaphtaliPress (Dec 11, 2021)

The Greek word is used in Hebrews 3:19 which is a last verse and that in the KJV reads "could not enter" which parallels Durham's"none could enter".

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## Charles Johnson (Dec 11, 2021)

Psalm 95:11 and Deuteronomy 23:3 come to mind.


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## Puritan Sailor (Dec 11, 2021)

2 Chron 7:2 would be a better fit. Uses same Greek term in LXX and fits the imagery of the cloud filling the temple so the priests "could not enter". 
Another possibility is 2 Chron 5:14, which mentions the same event, but doesn't use the same word, showing how the priests could not enter the temple. But it is the last verse in the chapter. Perhaps Durham (or his scribe) conflated the two?

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## NaphtaliPress (Dec 12, 2021)

Thanks Patrick!


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