# North Galatia vs. South Galatia



## Backwoods Presbyterian (Jun 3, 2010)

Do you hold to the Letter to the Galatians being written to North Galatia or South Galatia?

Do you think it matters or is this an issue made up by those seeking new topics for a Ph.D? 

Comments?


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## Whitefield (Jun 3, 2010)

Doesn't matter unless we know where the Mason-Dixon Line was drawn between North and South Galatia.


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## MLCOPE2 (Jun 3, 2010)

I can see no theological or practical sense in which it would matter. It would make a nice dissertation though.  We all know that those are pointless.


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## Peairtach (Jun 3, 2010)

The Galatians were a Celtic people that moved to Asia Minor, from Central Europe(?) some hundreds of years B.C.

The name "Galatia" is etymologically related to "Galicia" (the name of a Spanish region with a particular Celtic past) and "Gaul"/"Gallic" (the ancient name of Celtic France and its people). "Pays de Galle" is also French for Wales, a Celtic region of Great Britain. 

I don't know if it's related to Gaelic/Gaeltachd (the ancient and still surviving language and people of Ireland, Scotland and the Isle of Man) but I'll check that out.

As far as I can see there is no etymological link discovered between the words (a) Gael, Gaelic and Gaeltachd on the one hand and (b) Gaul, Galatia, Galicia, Gallic on the other, although both refer to Celtic peoples and regions, (a) in Irealand and Scotland, and (b) on the Continent.


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## DMcFadden (Jun 3, 2010)

Of course it "matters." History, particularly the history of the origins of our faith always matters. 

There are implications for how we reconstruct the history of the Jerusalem Council in Acts 15. But, none that will undermine any doctrinal ones we want to make.


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## coramdeo (Jun 3, 2010)

Richard, thanks and I do hope you will post some more on this topic. Gregg


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## Southern Presbyterian (Jun 3, 2010)

If it mattered the Holy Spirit, via Paul, would have included the information in the text. 

But on a farcical note, if it were to Southern Galatia would Paul not have used the contraction _y'all_ at least once? 
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