# Head Covering and Creation Order



## TaylorOtwell (Nov 25, 2009)

I have a specific question about 1st Corinthians 11:2-16 and Paul's appeal to the creation order. 

If Paul's appeal to creation is to establish the use or non-use of a veil, why were the priests in the Old Testament required to have head gear to wear during their temple service?

I'm wondering if Paul's appeal to creation is to ground the _moral principle_ of woman's submission to man (something not changed by coming to Christ), and once he grounds this moral principle, he advocates the _cultural outworking_ of that principle in the use of the veil. I usually hear head covering advocates ground their position in Paul's appeal to creation, but I can't see how Paul's appeal to creation can be in defense of the material headcovering itself, as it is not something that was enjoined upon the OT church. Rather, I see Paul's appeal to creation as defending the underlying principle of the outward manifestation. Am I way off in coming to this conclusion? What are the weaknesses in this position? 

As an aside, Wayne Grudem indicates in his article on the topic that the most recent research and discovery in ancient culture has demonstrated that the veil was used to symbolize marriage and was taken on by a bride at the wedding ceremony, and this is why the ESV translators chose to use "wife" instead of "woman".

*Edit* - In presenting this to someone who believes that head covering is applicable for all ages of the NT church, he stated that the hair was given as a natural covering in the OT and now that "shadow" (my words) has been fulfilled in the extra, material head covering of the NT. In a sense, it's almost like he views it as a new ceremonial law of the New Covenant. Do you think this is Paul's intent?


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## TaylorOtwell (Nov 26, 2009)




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## au5t1n (Nov 26, 2009)

I've wondered the same thing. I'm for head covering, but I want to hear answers to this question as well.


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## kvanlaan (Nov 26, 2009)

> he stated that the hair was given as a natural covering in the OT



But if this was the case, why are there two different greek words used in referring to the hair and the covering in 1 Cor 11? (As I recall it).


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## Tim (Nov 26, 2009)

It's true:



> 1Co 11:6 For if the woman be not covered, let her also be shorn: but if it be a shame for a woman to be shorn or shaven, let her be covered.



1 Corinthians 11:6 - 'covering' is from the word κατακαλύπτω (katakalupto)


> 1Co 11:15 But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering.



1 Corinthians 11:15 - 'covering' is from the word περιβόλαιον (peribolaion)


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## TaylorOtwell (Nov 26, 2009)

Sorry, brother, I'm slow. I don't see how this effects his position. Expand this thought further?


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## kvanlaan (Nov 26, 2009)

Because as I read the quote, it looked to me like he was arguing that the hair was the covering (hence my argument that the 'covering' is referred to as two different things).


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## Augusta (Nov 26, 2009)

Hi Taylor, I think this was because back then ONLY men served in the presence of God. I believe that this new command for women to cover was because of the change in worship with women being added in and worshipping God side by side with men. Before God the order of headship and authority must be shown, therefore the women must have power on their heads.


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## Iconoclast (Nov 27, 2009)

kvanlaan said:


> Because as I read the quote, it looked to me like he was arguing that the hair was the covering (hence my argument that the 'covering' is referred to as two different things).



Long hair , not just hair , Long hair


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## Grillsy (Nov 27, 2009)

I am all for head-covering. My wife wears one actually. I have a defense of this written somewhere in my files. I will have to dig it out.


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## tlharvey7 (Nov 27, 2009)




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## TaylorOtwell (Nov 27, 2009)

Augusta,

When families prayed together in the OT, do you think that the woman wore a veil and the man did not?


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