# 1 John 3:9



## tmckinney (Mar 17, 2006)

I recently encountered a person who believed in complete sanctificationism-- the belief that Christians can become sinless. The classic proof text he used was 1 John 3:9 and 1 John 5:18. I have consulted different commentaries in which disagreements arise surrounding "poiei." Does it denote an absolute action or a continual action? Is John only refering to the regenerate aspect of our nature or the overall aspect? One thing is for sure; this verse is not espousing the heretical doctrine of complete sanctificationism.


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## Contra_Mundum (Mar 17, 2006)

I suppose that this person only thinks a Christian _may_ reach this point in this life, not necessarily? 1 John 1:8 proves that no one is sinless, not even Christians.

It is Satan's lie that suggests otherwise, and this is a common ruse of his--to camouflage his own words under God's Word, see Mt. 4:6. Jesus refuted Satan in that instance (v. 7) by relying on the non-contradictory nature of Scripture itself. God cannot lie (Heb. 6:18). Therefore, it is the duty of Christians to harmonize the various portions of Scripture. Only a forced reading creates irreconcilable conflicts, to affirm which is itelf sinful. Therefore, the position that the Bible could teach that a Christian may achieve sinlessness is itself sinful, and the position self-refutes.

1 Jn. 5:18 follows hard after v. 16-17 that speak of a "brother" sinning, but not unto death. What does that mean, if not that a _Christian_ can sin? Exactly.

1 Jn. 3:8 uses a present active participle (one doing sin), v. 9 the present active indicative (he is sinning). The tense itself will _prove_ nothing, except that it is the one tense that is ideal to convey the idea of "practicing" in an ongoing, habitual manner.

An aorist verb would be ideal to convey the idea that any one act of sin demonstrates a non-Christian heart. But that is not found. Indeed, the very idea goes against the whole of Scripture. Was Peter sinning in separating himself from the Gentiles (as Paul relates it in Gal. 2:11-13)? Of course he was. Was he unsaved at that point? Nonsense. So, Christians can and do sin.

So we are back to 1 John 1:8. John uses the "we" constantly. He is speaking to the gathered covenant community of proessing believers. He includes himself in his own admonitions. Perseverance in godliness is the only way to assurance of salvation. This is as true for an apostle as for a convert. If you don't strive against sin, you must be dead--spiritually or physically (Heb. 12:4). And if you are perfect at such striving, then you must be in heaven already (1 Cor. 9:27).


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## tmckinney (Mar 18, 2006)

Thank you Rev. Bruce for that thought-provoking response. I agree that the immediate context is determinative to an author's intention behind his argument. 

But this person who espoused complete sanctificationism argued (eisegetically of course) that there are two categories of Christians: (1) born-again Christians (2) non-born again Christians. The born-again Christians, he argued, are the ones who are sinless and the non-born again Christians are not sinless. I nearly passed out when he told me that! When I pressed him to provide scriptural support for this false distinction, he pulled the old "Well show me where the Trinity is explicitly stated in the Bible" argument.

I am grieved when people twist and distort the Scriputres in this manner to promote their false doctrines (2 Peter 3:16).


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## Contra_Mundum (Mar 18, 2006)

I'm sorry that the guy is so mixed up on elementary issues. He's obviously been poorly discipled. Continue to pray for him, that he might receive truth from the Spirit of truth, 1 Cor 2:14 & 4:7. The good thing is that if God's Spirit works effectually on him to renew his mind, he will be restless with his knowledge that he continues to sin and seriously seek answers.


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