# How to "praise the name"? Was YHWH "lost" because Jesus was revealed?



## Tirian (May 14, 2014)

Growing uneasy about the usage either LORD, or Jehovah or YAHWEH in place of YHWH when we should want to "praise the name of YHWH" as per Psalm 148:5

I've always accepted that we just have to add consonants into YHWH because otherwise how do you pronounce it, but lately I've been wondering if the pronunciation of YHWH being lost isn't an accident. 

Phillipians 2:9 Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the *name which is above every name*, 10 that *at the name of Jesus* every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those under the earth, 11 and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

So, our hearts naturally want to praise *the name*, per Psalm 148 but how can we do that unless we first know *what the name is*? We have YHWH in the old dispensation, but clearly we have been given Jesus in the new. Therefore if I want to praise the name, per Psalm 148 am I right to think that the completed canon of scripture suggests that I do so by praising specifically the articulated *name of Jesus*?

As such, do we need LORD/Jehovah/Yahweh at all in places where the covenantal name of God is used in the OT and should we just leave it as YHWH in our translations & thought life?


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## au5t1n (May 14, 2014)

My reasoning is that _kurios_ (Lord) is used for YHVH in Matthew 22:44 (quoting Psalm 110:1), so the LORD convention is appropriate. 

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## kodos (May 15, 2014)

Indeed, many commentators believe that Paul is stating that the name above every name is _not_ Jesus, but _LORD_ (or, Yahweh) in Philippians 2:11. Which makes sense if you think about it. The remarkable thing about that verse is that Jesus is given the divine name, and it is to the glory of God.

"At the name of", some commentators believe should be translated "the name belonging to" Jesus. Dr. James Montgomery Boice in his commentary is pretty good here. Rev. Kenneth Stewart (Glasgow RP church) also has a good sermon on this (on Christ's Exaltation) if you want to look it up sometime. I believe it is this one:
http://www.sermonaudio.com/sermoninfo.asp?SID=217121649450 

*James Montgomery Boice*
"Paul now moves back up again toward his climax—Christ’s exaltation. It is symbolized in a name that is above every name: Lord, the equivalent of God’s own name, Jehovah.
A number of commentators have taught that this supreme name given by God is “Jesus.” But this is incorrect for several reasons. One writer argues, “First, no name other than Yahweh [Jehovah] has a right to be called ‘the name above every name.’ Secondly, the movement of verses 9–11 does not stop at the phrase ‘gave him the name … ,’ but flows straight on to the universal confession that ‘Jesus Christ is Lord,’ which suggests that the significant thing is the ascription of ‘Lord’ in addition to the names already known. Thirdly, verse 10 is a pretty direct quotation of Isaiah 45:23, where Yahweh [Jehovah], having declared himself to be the only God and the only Savior, vows that he will yet be the object of universal worship and adoration. It is this divine honor that is now bestowed upon the Lord Jesus Christ.”

He does a paraphrase of this passage in Philippians:
Translation: Because of which voluntary act of supreme self-renunciation, God also super-eminently exalted Him to the highest rank and power, and graciously bestowed upon Him THE NAME, the one which is above every name, in order that in recognition of THE NAME belonging to Jesus, every knee should bow, of things in heaven, of things on earth, and of things under the earth, and in order that every tongue should plainly and openly declare that Jesus Christ is LORD, resulting in the glory of God the Father.

BTW, this is pretty important as well - for those who are EP, as we sing of the LORD in the Psalms - and Jesus has been _given_ this name.


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