# 1 John 2:2-propitiation?



## thistle93 (Apr 25, 2011)

Hi! I have a question on 1 John 2:2 

1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. ESV

The way propitiation is worded it seems like it is something that has already been accomplished not something that awaits to be accomplished by a response. Now of course I believe to be applied it must be received by faith and repentance but that does not seem to be the thrust of this verse. Also though it says whole world clearly this is not a text for universalism. For the wrath of God has not been universally satisfied. Clearly unbelievers are still under the wrath of God, including the elect until God rescues them or why the need of a future judgment. I do believe the offer of forgiveness of sin is universally given but the only ones who will respond are those that God's elects to salvation because, none would come to God without His enabling & drawing. 

Any thoughts? Is there anything in the Greek structure that would support or hinder my position?


For His Glory-
matthew


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## PuritanCovenanter (Apr 25, 2011)

His propitiational work was accomplished. That is what our faith is based upon. If it wasn't your faith has no resting place. Your justification comes as a gift by grace through faith based upon the finished work of Christ. The propitiation or wrath appeasement is work that was performed and accomplished 2 millennia ago.


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## rbcbob (Apr 25, 2011)

Propitiation is the turning away or shielding from wrath. Jesus is, Himself, the propitiation for our sins. Because God's wrath is propitiated His children are not liable to it.


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## Peairtach (Apr 25, 2011)

> 1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. ESV



B.B. Warfield has a postmillennial take on this verse, somewhere in his works, which should be considered.


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## thistle93 (Apr 27, 2011)

I agree that the propitiation was accomplished at cross of Christ but I would say that it is not applied to the individual until the elect act in faith. Until that time even the elect are under the wrath of God, though their faith is not of themselves but a gift from God and therefor guaranteed. I think that if one does not believe this then they promote a view of Eternal justification, which many hyper-calvinism espouse but I think is unscriptural. Thoughts? Verses to prove or disprove my position? 

For His Glory-
Matthew


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## HoldFast (Apr 27, 2011)

rbcbob said:


> Propitiation is the turning away or shielding from wrath.



ιλασμος - propitiation 

I believe it is more accurately defined as appeasement, expiation, or satisfaction necessitated by sin. 

Jesus is the just satisfaction for our sins.


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## PuritanCovenanter (Apr 27, 2011)

thistle93 said:


> I agree that the propitiation was accomplished at cross of Christ but I would say that it is not applied to the individual until the elect act in faith. Until that time even the elect are under the wrath of God, though their faith is not of themselves but a gift from God and therefor guaranteed. I think that if one does not believe this then they promote a view of Eternal justification, which many hyper-calvinism espouse but I think is unscriptural. Thoughts? Verses to prove or disprove my position?
> 
> For His Glory-
> Matthew



When were the sins of the Old Testament saints pardoned? Christ hadn't paid the penalty yet? But when you look at Nathan and David and Psalm 51 God put away their sin in that payment even before. I don't hold to the strange view of Eternal Justification. It implies more than this. We have discussed this issue a few times in the past. You can do a search for it. 

(2Sa 12:13) And David said unto Nathan, I have sinned against the LORD. And Nathan said unto David, The LORD also hath put away thy sin; thou shalt not die.

Now as far as justification goes you are correct. Justification is based upon Grace through faith. You mentioned Eternal Justification. We do not hold to it here. It is unconfessional. Therefore being Justified by Faith. But concerning propitiation, that is another matter. You are confusing the two it seems.


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## InSlaveryToChrist (Apr 27, 2011)

Joshua_B said:


> rbcbob said:
> 
> 
> > Propitiation is the turning away or shielding from wrath.
> ...



Propitiation is not merely expiation or satisfaction for sin. Expiation means _only half of_ what propitiation means. Expiation is an action that has sin as it’s object; it denotes the covering, putting away, or rubbing out of sin so that it no longer constitutes a barrier to friendly fellowship between man and God. Propitiation, however, in the bible, denotes all that expiation means, “and the pacifying of the wrath of God thereby.” [We are “by nature the children of wrath” (Eph. 2:3) and all unbelievers have the wrath of God abiding on them now]. (John 3:18; 36*) (Knowing God, J.I. Packer, p.182)

The doctrine of the propitiation is precisely this: that God loved the objects of his wrath so much that he gave his own Son to the end that he by his blood should make provision for the removal of his wrath. It was Christ’s so to deal with the wrath that the “loved” would no longer be the objects of wrath, and love would achieve it’s aim of making the children of “wrath” the children of God’s good pleasure. (John 3:16, 18, 36, 17:2, 9; Matt. 11:25, 27) John Murray, The Atonement, p. 15

Here is a helpful distinction between atonement, expiation, propitiation and reconciliation:

1. *Atonement* is making amends for a wrong done, for a loss or injury caused. This is a more general term and must be used cautiously because it includes the whole process of making us right with God through the work of Christ. 

2. *Expiation* is the actual satisfaction of a wrong, making atonement for it. Expiation is particularly the effect of satisfaction upon the sinner’s guilt. 

3. *Propitiation* is the appeasing of the one offended to remove the cause of his anger. Propitiation speaks primarily to the effect of satisfaction upon God as the offended party. 

4. *Reconciliation* is our restored fellowship with God resulting from the removed offense. The New Testament verb is katalassein. The noun form is katalagae. It means to exchange, to change a person from enmity to friendship. This works in both directions: We are reconciled with God, and he with us.


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## HoldFast (Apr 27, 2011)

InSlaveryToChrist said:


> Propitiation is not merely expiation or satisfaction for sin.



What then is missing? I cannot discern what is missing from what you have written.


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