# IT vs HE in Mark 13:14



## Ed Walsh (Sep 27, 2022)

Greetings, people smarter than me,
@iainduguid (of course)

Does anyone have insight into the translation of the word he, versus it, in the translations below? I didn't check too many translations, but they seem split. And what, if any, is the significance of different translations?

Mark 13:14 ESV
But when you see the abomination of desolation standing where *he* ought not to be ( let the reader understand), then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains.

Mark 13:14 NASB1995
But when you see the abomination of desolation standing where *it* should not be (let the reader understand), then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains.

Mark 13:14 ASV
But when ye see the abomination of desolation standing where he ought not (let him that readeth understand), then let them that are in Judæa flee unto the mountains:

Thanks.

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## aaronsk (Sep 27, 2022)

I am not one of the folks here smarter than you but I thought it might be helpful to discussion to drop some info on it from Blue Letter Bible. Maybe it can be of some help.

it ought
PHRASE
g1163
δεῖ δεῖ_dei_



 









G1163 - dei - Strong's Greek Lexicon (kjv)


G1163 - δεῖ deî, die; 3rd person singular active present of ; also deon deh-on'; neuter active participle of the same; both used impersonally; it is (was, etc.) necessary (as binding):—behoved, be meet, must (needs), (be) need(-ful), ought, should.




www.blueletterbible.org

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## Physeter (Sep 27, 2022)

But when ye shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing where *it* ought not, (let him that readeth understand,) then let them that be in Judaea flee to the mountains: - Mark 13:14 - KJV

I am no expert on translations, but most of the translations I have read render the pronoun as *it*. This seems to imply that the object is an idol not a person.

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## Taylor (Sep 27, 2022)

The term for “abomination” is grammatically neuter. That’s why most translations have “it.” But, in Greek, gender is a function of grammar, not biology. In other words, the gender of the noun does not necessarily have to do with the gender of its referent. For example, “Holy Spirit” in Greek is neuter, yet it is inappropriate to refer to the Spirit as “it.” It is also worth noting that the Hebrew behind “abomination” in Daniel 9:27, which this passage quotes, is masculine.

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## iainduguid (Sep 27, 2022)

I think I'm right in saying that the Greek is ambiguous; _ou dei _can be used of a person (see 2 Tim 2:24), as well as of an object. Translations have diverged based on their understanding of this admittedly difficult verse.

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