# Romans iv, Abraham and works



## martyrologist (May 17, 2005)

In Rom. iv.2, where Paul wrote "If Abraham was justified by works," are the works referenced here "works of the law" or works in general?


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## Scott Bushey (May 17, 2005)

Rom 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law

Rom 4:2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. 

I conclude: The law. The reference is synonomous.



[Edited on 5-18-2005 by Scott Bushey]


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## martyrologist (May 19, 2005)

Now are we to believe that Abraham was under the law or subject to the law, though he was well before the formation of the law?

Or are we to understand that this is more of a hypothetical situation: Abraham was justified, but if he was justified because of the law....

Thanks.


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## Puritan Sailor (May 20, 2005)

> _Originally posted by martyrologist_
> Now are we to believe that Abraham was under the law or subject to the law, though he was well before the formation of the law?
> 
> Or are we to understand that this is more of a hypothetical situation: Abraham was justified, but if he was justified because of the law....
> ...



Abraham was under the moral law just as we all are. In the covenant of grace, in Christ, the law is a rule of life, God's righteous standard for His holy people. In Adam, the law plays that same role with the added promise of life for the one who would keep it perfectly.

[Edited on 5-20-2005 by puritansailor]


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