# Rejecting the "will of God"



## C. Matthew McMahon (Jun 27, 2005)

Luke 7:30 but the Pharisees and the lawyers *rejected the purpose of God* for themselves, not having been baptized by him.

What do you think about this verse?


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## WrittenFromUtopia (Jun 28, 2005)

They rejected salvation, turning against God, exposing themselves as the fickle generation they were described as being.


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## WrittenFromUtopia (Jun 28, 2005)

... which was, of course, according to God's eternal purpose and decree.


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## biblelighthouse (Jun 28, 2005)

I don't think God's "purpose" for them was salvation. If it was, and they rejected it, then we need to become either 4-point Calvinists or Arminians. 

(Although, I _suppose_ it is possible that God's purpose was for their salvation, and they rejected it, but accepted it a few years later. But that seems to be a stretch..)

Rather, I tend to think that God's "purpose" for them was reprobation . . . that God Sovereignly planned for them to reject the Gospel and go to hell. The Pharisees and lawyers rejected this purpose for themselves. They didn't have faith in God and in the true worship of Him, and they knew that John's preaching, if true, would condemn them. So they rejected John's preaching.

If John the Baptist preached the truth, then they were hellbound. They rejected this purpose of reprobation for themselves, and turned back to their manmade traditions, thinking they would find salvation there.

There may be a much better explanation. But those are my thoughts at the moment, for what they're worth.


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## Arch2k (Jun 28, 2005)

It seems to me that the divided sense would definately come into play in this verse. What is the purpose of all men?

Q. 1. What is the chief end of man?
A. Man´s chief end [or purpose] is to glorify God, and to enjoy him forever.

God through John the Baptist commanded them to repent and be baptized, and they refused God's purpose in this respect and followed their own way.


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## biblelighthouse (Jun 28, 2005)

> _Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel_
> It seems to me that the divided sense would definately come into play in this verse. What is the purpose of all men?
> 
> Q. 1. What is the chief end of man?
> ...




Good point. That's an easy, simple answer. I like it.


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## Poimen (Jun 28, 2005)

> _Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel_
> It seems to me that the divided sense would definately come into play in this verse. What is the purpose of all men?
> 
> Q. 1. What is the chief end of man?
> ...





This question is not dissimilar to Acts 7:51 

"You stiff-necked and uncircumcised in heart and ears! You always resist the Holy Spirit; as your fathers did, so do you."

If an Arminian says 'See man can resist God's grace' I would answer 'What is it about this passage that one could claim that they are resisting His grace?' The context informs us that they are resisting the Word of God, not the application of grace. 

Similarly as Jeff points out, the command was there for the Pharisees and lawyers to repent and be baptized. In this sense God's will, just as in the preaching of the Word, is a serious and promiscuous call to do as He commands, without implying that His decretive will is being thwarted.


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## WrittenFromUtopia (Jun 28, 2005)

They rejected what God commands all men to do, not His eternal purpose, which *cannot* be thwarted.


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## Herald (Aug 27, 2005)

Luke 7:30, being taken in context, comes directly after Jesus' summation of John the Baptist' ministry. In verse 29 we read, "And when all the people and the tax-gatherers heard this, they acknowledged God's justice, having been baptized with the baptism of John." Luke is introducing a dichotomy here. In verse 29 we the common people (and social outcasts, i.e. tax collectors) who had received the baptism of John, which was one of repentance from sin. In Luke 7:30 the Pharisees and Lawyers, even though they are spoken of in the present tense, actually rejected "the purpose of God for themselves" by refusing to repent (under the baptism of John). This is in keeping with their reprobate nature.


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