# Biblical evidence that "baptizo" means less than full immersion?



## timmopussycat (Jun 10, 2008)

Hello all

I have been told that there are biblical examples of the use of this word (baptizo) to mean something less than full immersion. Does anybody know where I might find a list of such uses? 

Thank you


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## Poimen (Jun 10, 2008)

This issue has been hashed out in several threads. 

http://www.puritanboard.com/f57/baptizo-immersion-vs-sprinkling-28432/
http://www.puritanboard.com/f57/baptizo-doesnt-mean-immerse-2664/
http://www.puritanboard.com/f57/immersion-31609/index2.html


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## Semper Fidelis (Jun 10, 2008)

Dr. John Church on the Old Testament use of the term from Why Baptize By Sprinkling


> The Old Testament Background of the Subject
> 
> Sometime ago I announced that I would speak on the theme we are dealing with in this book. There was a good man in the city where I was holding the meeting, and when he heard my announcement he remarked to a friend of mine that he did not see how I could prove my point unless I went back to the Old Testament for my proof. I feel that the point can be proven from the New Testament alone. However, we need to see that it is perfectly logical for us to begin a discussion of this subject from the standpoint of the Old Testament teaching. The New Testament springs out of the Old Testament, and the New Testament is the fulfillment of the Old Testament. They supplement each other. We can never fully understand the Bible teaching on the subject of baptism, and many other subjects, unless we do go back to the Old Testament to begin.
> 
> ...


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## DavidGGraves (Jun 11, 2008)

Tim,

I actually uncovered evidence that baptizw means less than immersion in George Beasley-Murray's book defending credo-baptism. 

Second the use comes from the LXX translation of the Hebrew word טבל (dip) in Leviticus 4:6 inter alia with the cognate baptw. The priests are commanded to dip their finger in the palm of their hand. It stretches credulity to argue that one must (can?) immerse one's finger in the palm of his hand. I as, a credo-baptist, find much wisdom in the Didache's instructions that immersion is preferable but not required as a form Scripturally.


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## RamistThomist (Jun 11, 2008)

in Scripture the people who were fully immersed died. Peter calls the Noah narrative a baptism. The irony is that those who weren't immersed lived!


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## Kevin (Jun 11, 2008)

Ivanhoe said:


> in Scripture the people who were fully immersed died. Peter calls the Noah narrative a baptism. The irony is that those who weren't immersed lived!


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## Reformed Covenanter (Jun 11, 2008)

Ivanhoe said:


> in Scripture the people who were fully immersed died. Peter calls the Noah narrative a baptism. The irony is that those who weren't immersed lived!



Yes, it's a bit like those who were baptized under Moses (1 Cor. 10). The Egyptians were immersed, but not baptized; Israel was baptized, but not immersed.


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## RamistThomist (Jun 11, 2008)

I was reading Acts today where Phillip baptized the Ethiopian. it says that both went down into the water. That would suggest that the Ethiopian was immersed. But strictly speaking, given the force of the language, Phillip must be immersed as well! That doesn't rebut credo, to be sure, but I would like to see more consistency on ministers' parts.


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## Reformed Covenanter (Jun 11, 2008)

Ivanhoe said:


> I was reading Acts today where Phillip baptized the Ethiopian. it says that both went down into the water. That would suggest that the Ethiopian was immersed. But strictly speaking, given the force of the language, Phillip must be immersed as well! That doesn't rebut credo, to be sure, but I would like to see more consistency on ministers' parts.



How many deserts do you know that have baptismal pools in them?


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