# 1 Peter 2:9



## InevitablyReformed (Apr 16, 2008)

This may be a silly question for you old pros, but I was wondering about Peter's words in this passage. A dispensational friend of mine was using this passage in conjunction with 1:1 to show that Peter is limiting his description (of Christians, I thought) to Jewish believers? Any thoughts?


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## BobVigneault (Apr 16, 2008)

Here is the passage:



> 1 Peter 2:9 But you are a chosen race, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, a people for his own possession, that you may proclaim the excellencies of him who called you out of darkness into his marvelous light.


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## A5pointer (Apr 16, 2008)

He is interpreting through his grid. It actualy makes the point that all those in Christ are now the true priesthood/Israel. Inform him he is Jewish whether he knows it or not.


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## BobVigneault (Apr 16, 2008)

Here is a wonderful chart to work through regarding questions about the differences and comparisons of the church and Israel. There are other NT passages that will give commentary on the 1 Peter passage.


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## Blueridge Believer (Apr 16, 2008)

Exd 19:5 Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth [is] mine: 
Exd 19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These [are] the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel. 


Exodus is the stem and 1 Peter is the flower.


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## greenbaggins (Apr 16, 2008)

James is absolutely right on the OT background for the verse. It is quite a stretch to say that Peter was writing to Jewish Christians. We can simply ask this question: does the verse have any application to us Gentile Christians today? If it does, then the dispensationalist has given the ball game away, since the church can now be described this way. Elect exiles of the dispersion does not imply Jewish Christians. It implies Christians scattered because of persecution. Diaspora was a common term in use at that time to describe the Jewish scattering. However, Peter uses it in a different way. He is using it to describe Christians who are scattered from their homeland (pilgrim theology).


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## Kim G (Apr 16, 2008)

BobVigneault said:


> Here is a wonderful chart to work through regarding questions about the differences and comparisons of the church and Israel. There are other NT passages that will give commentary on the 1 Peter passage.



This is great! Just the thing for my husband and I to go over together sometime. We just came to this conclusion on our own a few weeks ago while reading through Galatians and Ephesians (one of those, "why didn't we see this before?" moments). It will be great to go through these Scripture references together. So thanks!


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## InevitablyReformed (Apr 16, 2008)

Kim G said:


> BobVigneault said:
> 
> 
> > Here is a wonderful chart to work through regarding questions about the differences and comparisons of the church and Israel. There are other NT passages that will give commentary on the 1 Peter passage.
> ...



Yes, thanks BobV and Green,
This chart and the posts ave been very helpful.


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## KMK (Apr 16, 2008)

Blueridge Baptist said:


> Exd 19:5 Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth [is] mine:
> Exd 19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These [are] the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.
> 
> 
> Exodus is the stem and 1 Peter is the flower.



Beautifully put as usual, Mr. Farley!


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## DMcFadden (Apr 16, 2008)

greenbaggins said:


> James is absolutely right on the OT background for the verse. It is quite a stretch to say that Peter was writing to Jewish Christians. We can simply ask this question: does the verse have any application to us Gentile Christians today? If it does, then the dispensationalist has given the ball game away, since the church can now be described this way. Elect exiles of the dispersion does not imply Jewish Christians. It implies Christians scattered because of persecution. Diaspora was a common term in use at that time to describe the Jewish scattering. However, Peter uses it in a different way. He is using it to describe Christians who are scattered from their homeland (pilgrim theology).



Oh, Lane! Here you go again! Are you trying to diss my dispensational upbringing? Next thing you know, you'll be making fun of my library of _Left Behind _books.

BTW, as much as your learned arguments typically are pretty much what I also believe (other than ones that have to do with water), how does application to us give the "ball game away"? I would think that a dispi would say that the OT writings are addressed to Israel, but have manifold application to us by way of example, exhortation, encouragement, etc. Why is it any different in the Petrine epistles? 

in my opinion, you have a stronger argument in showing that the Jewish term "disaspora" is being used to describe NT believers who, although they were not a race, nation, or priesthood, are now described with such vintage OT language. It is easier for the covenant person to explain THAT than it is for the dispi to deny it.


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