# God's Love "unconditional"?



## D. Paul (Feb 17, 2010)

Once again, this is a phrase often repeated in sermons. Am I correct in taking exception to it? It is generally stated as a universal truth to each and every individual. Regardless, it is not true. The "condition" is always Christ, but this is never mentioned due to the rejection of limited atonement. Jesus only makes salvation possible.


----------



## SolaSaint (Feb 17, 2010)

The sermons I have heard, I wouldn't say that the phrase was used in a universal way. Usually it is used in describing God's grace upon those He has chosen. Also can't we say that God's common grace is unconditional in a universal way?


----------



## rbcbob (Feb 18, 2010)

*con⋅di⋅tion⋅al*
  
–adjective 
1.	imposing, containing, subject to, or depending on a condition or conditions; not absolute; made or allowed on certain terms: conditional acceptance. 

God's love for His elect is Sovereign, Unilateral, and unconditional. It dates from before the foundation of the world.


----------



## D. Paul (Feb 18, 2010)

But still, we cannot say it is apart from the Person and work of Christ. Otherwise, what was the purpose?
I appreciate the fact that you state it is for God's elect, but again, this is not how I heard it defined in the sermon(s) I had in mind. It is said to everyone, "God loves you unconditionally" and I object.


----------



## dudley (Feb 18, 2010)

rbcbob;God's love for His elect is Sovereign said:


> Amen Brother! it is the foundation of our Reformed Protestant theology and faith. We are saved and Justified by faith In Jesus Christ alone and the amazing grace of God!!!


----------



## rbcbob (Feb 18, 2010)

D. Paul said:


> But still, we cannot say it is apart from the Person and work of Christ. Otherwise, what was the purpose?
> I appreciate the fact that you state it is for God's elect, but again, this is not how I heard it defined in the sermon(s) I had in mind. It is said to everyone, "God loves you unconditionally" and I object.


 
You could couch your objection with "Those whom God loves, He loves unconditionally".


----------



## D. Paul (Feb 19, 2010)

I must not be making myself clear. Since no one can be saved apart from Christ, then Christ is the condition for Salvation, by which we say God has "loved" us. So how can the statement make sense unless this is clarified? How can it be said to the sinner sitting in the pew that "God loves you unconditionally" with no mention of Christ? It makes no sense.


----------



## PuritanZealot (Feb 20, 2010)

I get what you're saying, perhaps these guys haven't heard the kind of sermon you're talking about. I used to hear it all the time in the CofE church I went to, they try and get anyone and everyone in there, seeing at as some kind of victory to get secular and non-Christians in to church for family events, which I find totally bizarre. But we often got the 'God loves all mankind' sermons preached, which I always sat there immensely perplexed about.
If God loves all mankind unconditionally, then why did he elect some people for eternal hellfire?? Obviously he doesn't love all mankind unconditionally.


----------



## Bern (Feb 20, 2010)

I think its more helpful to think of our election as unconditional, rather than God's love.


----------



## Andres (Feb 20, 2010)

D. Paul said:


> I must not be making myself clear. Since no one can be saved apart from Christ, then Christ is the condition for Salvation, by which we say God has "loved" us. So how can the statement make sense unless this is clarified? How can it be said to the sinner sitting in the pew that "God loves you unconditionally" with no mention of Christ? It makes no sense.


 
I see your point. I don't even think the issue has to be based on the adverb "unconditionally". Wouldn't the biblical phrase be "God loves you in Christ"?


----------



## BobVigneault (Feb 20, 2010)

Bern has hit the key to the question. The problem does not come about because of the word 'unconditional', the puzzle is in the word 'love' and this is godly love that we are speaking of. God's love is an electing love. God's is unchanging in all his attributes and so we must remember that his love is immutable EVEN before it is unconditional. Love, in it's basic definition, is to set one's preference upon another. I love my wife - I have set my preference upon her. Because God's love does not change it means that he set his preference upon some in eternity. There is no condition, in that there is nothing outside himself that caused him to choose or set his preference on anyone. True love is always unconditional. God, for reasons known only to himself, elected some to receive mercy and others to be vessels of wrath. Godly hate is simply the withholding of his preference or election and it is also unconditional with respect to the believer.

We may say that love is unconditional but salvation is conditioned upon the work of Christ and the atonement.

Here is a video by Dr. Morey that has been shared on the board a couple times now:

[video=youtube;LxZKJSNVgqM]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LxZKJSNVgqM[/video]


----------



## LawrenceU (Feb 20, 2010)

Usually when I hear the phrase, 'God loves unconditionally.' It is in a thoroughly Arminian or Pelegian context. The implication is that God loves every single human being exactly the same way regardless of their standing before him. That is unbiblical.


----------



## py3ak (Feb 20, 2010)

D. Paul said:


> Since no one can be saved apart from Christ, then Christ is the condition for Salvation, by which we say God has "loved" us.


 
I realize this probably isn't what you're driving at, but it's as well to keep in mind that it was on account of God's love that He gave His Son - as Huram said to Solomon, 'Because the Lord loved His people, He made you king over them. Turretin explains:
_Insttitutes,_ IV.10,15


> Although the love of beneficence and complacency cannot be exerted towards us except on account of Christ antecedently (because the actual pacification of God made by Christ ought necessarily to be supposed to the real communication of the divine love to us), this is not equally necessary with respect to the love of benevolence (which remains in God). God could be favorably disposed to us antecedently to Christ, although he could not bless us except on account of him. Nor does this carry any prejudice to his justice because that love does not exclude, but includes and draws after it a satisfaction necessarily. Just because he is favorably disposed to us, he appointed Christ as a Mediator, that he might actually bless us through him. If he loves us, he ought not to be considered as already appeased, but only as about to be. Beneficence indeed requires a reconciliation already made, but it is sufficient for benevolence that it shall be made in its own time.


----------

