# Christ's Divinity



## scottmaciver (May 31, 2010)

Hi all,
A few of us were discussing this recently, I wondered what thoughts you have on it... 
When Christ was on earth did He draw from His divinity?

Blessings,
Scott


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## py3ak (May 31, 2010)

According to Owen, "The only singular immediate act of the person of the Son on the human nature was the assumption of it into subsistence with himself." (_A Discourse Concerning the Holy Spirit_, Book 2, Chapter 3)

Scripture appears to represent that Christ acted by the power of the Holy Spirit (e.g., Acts 10:38).


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## scottmaciver (May 31, 2010)

Thanks for that. Any other thoughts?


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## Christusregnat (May 31, 2010)

Scott,

What do you mean by the term "draw from"?

Thanks,


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## Peairtach (May 31, 2010)

As to His humanity (body and soul) Christ had to live as one of His brethren (i.e. believers) by the power of the Holy Spirit. He looked to His Father as His God.

He could only demonstrate His divinity for the purpose of revealing Who He Was as God, which He did through His miracles and through the supernatural knowledge which was necessary for His Work.

Christ couldn't use His Divinity to "make things easier for Himself". He had to be in all points like His brethren, except without sin. See e.g. the Temptation in the Wilderness, the Book of Hebrews, the instances where Jesus expresses ignorance, etc.

It wasn't "any easier for Him" in His state of humiliation, than it is for other Christians/was for other Jews, because He was the Son of God, that is, fully Divine.


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## scottmaciver (Jun 2, 2010)

Christusregnat said:


> Scott,
> 
> What do you mean by the term "draw from"?
> 
> Thanks,


 
I mean was He as a man reliant on His own divinity, did He make use of it whilst He was on the earth?


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## David FCC (Jun 7, 2010)

scottmaciver said:


> I mean was He as a man reliant on His own divinity, did He make use of it whilst He was on the earth?



The way I understand it was that as a man He was reliant on His Father but he showed his own divine power in the miracles for example.
I could be way off the mark here but to me there seems to be no problem with that. Thats my  worth.


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## jambo (Jun 7, 2010)

The Christological creeds point out his two natures and the understanding of the hypostatic union show the two natures were present in Christ but did not interfere with each other. An example may be seen in the temptation of Christ to turn the stones into bread. As a hungry man weakened by fasting in the hot wilderness, he could have turned the stones into loaves of bread as the incarnate God. However his manhood was never enhanced by his deity nor was his deity weakened by his humanity. Both natures, joined in one person but independent of each other.


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## Peairtach (Jun 7, 2010)

_There is no man that hath power over the spirit to retain the spirit; neither hath he power in the day of death: and there is no discharge in that war; neither shall wickedness deliver those that are given to it. (Ecc 8:8, KJV)_

_No man has power to retain the spirit, or power over the day of death. There is no discharge from war, nor will wickedness deliver those who are given to it. (Ecc 8:8, ESV)_

I just noticed this earlier on tonight.

Since Christ had power over the point of His death to commit His spirit to the Father, this indicates that this was also a work of His Divinity, rather than His Spirit-filled humanity. The point at which we die is not something even the most Spirit-filled man can determine, or has the right to determine, but Christ had both the right and power.

He used the same prayer "Father into Thy hands I commit my spirit", as He would have been taught to pray as a child before going to sleep.


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## Elimelek (Jun 25, 2010)

I think that the only possibly answer would be speculative. What is the reason for asking such a question?


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