# Mark 5 "sleep"



## Eoghan (Oct 9, 2009)

Precisely waht is meant by sleep. I understand it to refer to death and separation from the body. 

Why did Jesus use the term when it already has a more obvious and contradictory meaning? Ruling out an attempt at deception on the part of our Lord what is the explanation?


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## Eoghan (Oct 9, 2009)

I Think there is a bit more to it. The term "asleep" and "sleeping" and "sleep" all seem to have a particular meaning in the NT. It seems to be applied to all "dead" believers. Is this a contradiction of a common misconception of a Sadducee use of "dead"?


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## Kings Bro (Oct 9, 2009)

I think it is a cultural term like we say today that people "have passed away." Paul uses the term asleep in 1 Thessalonians 4 also.


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## TaylorWest (Oct 9, 2009)

Given that the OT uses the phrase, "and [so and so] slept with his fathers," referring to the person's death, it might be that Jesus is pointing out a very important reality here, which comes to a head at the end of the Gospel in his debate with the Saducees.


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## Eoghan (Oct 10, 2009)

Thanks guys I will be discussing it with my kids today in our family bible study


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