# The Baptism of Christ



## InevitablyReformed (May 15, 2008)

I realize that Christ was baptized to "fulfill all righteousness," but what does that mean? Fulfill the Law as prescribed in Leviticus, Numbers, etc.? Was it an "example" on how we're supposed to be baptized? 

I've heard many interpretations of this and I was hoping to get some Scriptural context to this event.

I realize the danger in starting a baptism thread here so I'd like to say at the outset that I'm really just looking for comments concerning the baptism of Christ. 

Thanks in advance and may God bless your day.


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## Contra_Mundum (May 15, 2008)

Several ideas have been put forward, some of which are compatible with others and so might be taken together. Here are a few:

1) Christ is identifying with his people; they need to be baptized, symbolizing their repentance and cleansing from sin, so he enters into their obedience and perfects it in righteousness.

2) Christ is the Messiah, the Anointed. When is he "anointed"? At his baptism, which is when the Spirit comes down on him out of heaven (something we sprinklers and pourers would say was also symbolized by the act of baptism). Hence, he fulfills those prophecies that say he will fill the office of the Anointed.

3) It could be mainly a proleptic (future oriented) statement in that, because he _will be_ "fulfilling all righteousness" he is now being baptized.


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## Kevin (May 15, 2008)

#2.

Christ is "annointed' as a high priest. This is the begining of his ministry & is what sets him apart for this task.

BTW high priests were also baptised with oil on the head and with blood on the head/ear, thumb, and toe. The fulfillment of all of these is obvious in the life of Christ, but unless we recognise St Johns baptism of Christ as his annointing with water then the NT is silent about it.


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## InevitablyReformed (May 15, 2008)

Kevin said:


> #2.
> 
> Christ is "annointed' as a high priest. This is the begining of his ministry & is what sets him apart for this task.
> 
> BTW high priests were also baptised with oil on the head and with blood on the head/ear, thumb, and toe. The fulfillment of all of these is obvious in the life of Christ, but unless we recognise St Johns baptism of Christ as his annointing with water then the NT is silent about it.



So, Christ's baptism was different than the other people coming to be baptized by John--He was being set apart for the beginning of His ministry? Does His age have anything to do with this?


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## aleksanderpolo (May 15, 2008)

Christ also called His cross "baptism" in Mark 10. So, I take it to mean that His baptism symbolize His identification with and substitution for His people, to take up the curse and penalty of the law is to fulfill all righteousness, not just in His active obedience, but also in His passive obedience.


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## MOSES (May 15, 2008)

Kevin said:


> Christ is "annointed' as a high priest. This is the begining of his ministry & is what sets him apart for this task.
> BTW high priests were also baptised with oil on the head and with blood on the head/ear, thumb, and toe. The fulfillment of all of these is obvious in the life of Christ, but unless we recognise St Johns baptism of Christ as his annointing with water then the NT is silent about it.



And it may be of benefit to note that John himself was a LEVITE the son of a Priest in Israel.

That ties in many OT examples as well.e.g., Samuel annointing king David.

Note: As for age, right off of the top of my head I believe it was the custom that priests entered into their minsterial service at age 30.
Note: Jesus was annointed as both priest and king.


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## Kevin (May 15, 2008)

InevitablyReformed said:


> Kevin said:
> 
> 
> > #2.
> ...



I believe yes to all three questions.

Remember John objected to baptising Christ with the "baptism of (for) repentance" because Christ, as John noted had no need of that baptism. Christs response to John is not a rebutal of Johns refusal, rater it is an appeal to an alternative reason to baptise. "For Righteousness" is a request by Christ that John give Him a different baptism. This was a "legal requirement" baptism.

It is my belief that the "legal requirement" in view is the water baptism of the priesthood.


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## py3ak (May 15, 2008)

Alfred Edersheim has some interesting thoughts on the matter.



> It was now, as we take it, the early winter of the year 780. Jesus had
> waited those months. Although there seems not to have been any personal
> acquaintance between Jesus and John, and how could there be, when their
> spheres lay so widely apart? — each must have heard and known of the
> ...


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## InevitablyReformed (May 15, 2008)

MOSES said:


> Kevin said:
> 
> 
> > Christ is "annointed' as a high priest. This is the begining of his ministry & is what sets him apart for this task.
> ...




Where is the custom of the age of 30 found in Scripture? Thanks.


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## MOSES (May 15, 2008)

InevitablyReformed said:


> [
> Where is the custom of the age of 30 found in Scripture? Thanks.



Numbers 4



> 3 *from thirty years old *up to fifty years old, all who can come on duty, to do the work in the tent of meeting.


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## InevitablyReformed (May 15, 2008)

Great stuff gentlemen. 

Man, studying the Scriptures just never gets old.

Daniel


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## Iconoclast (May 15, 2008)

He was already acting in His mediatorial role,on behalf of the elect.


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## MOSES (May 15, 2008)

Simple thought from a simple mind.

Ok...we all know that John's baptism was a baptism of repentance..BUT...we often times forget that it was also:

*A baptism of preperation*

John's ministry was to prepare the people for the Lord...(to prepare the way)

Well, when John baptized Jesus, could we not also infer that he was preparing the Lord for the people? John's baptism of Jesus was also a baptism of preperation.

Note: That of course is already inferred in the whole annointing position, but I thought I would point it out specifically


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