# righteousness and covenant faithfulness



## arapahoepark (Aug 3, 2013)

Does righteousness (when referring to God in some contexts) mean covenantal faithfulness in the OT?
What are the arguments against this meaning in Paul's letters?


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## Poimen (Aug 3, 2013)

Single words may have multiple meanings, even when used by an author in a single letter. So I don't think it is possible to argue, dogmatically, that Paul never means "covenant faithfulness" when he uses the word righteousness (see Romans 6:18-19 & 1 Timothy 6:11 for example where it used in the sense of obeying God), but then neither would I say that he _always_ means "covenantal faithfulness" when he speaks of righteousness.

What is more helpful then is to see or explore in what way Paul uses the word righteousness in the context of his reflection on justification by faith (as, theologically speaking this is the crux of the issue that you are raising). In those contexts, righteousness is something that is granted to us by faith in Christ (Romans 3:21-22; 4:5 & especially 5:17 where it is a "gift" & Romans 9:30-31 which Israel did not attain but the Gentiles did). And it is particularly something that is given to us apart from the works of the law or even "works of righteousness" (Titus 3:5) and in light of God's righteousness that needs to be 'dealt with' by the sinner (Romans 3:19ff.). Which is to say that Paul is using the term in a forensic or legal context. 

So even if one would conclude that this righteousness given to a person or persons _demonstrated_ God's covenantal faithfulness (in light of, say, the promises of the covenant of grace) it would not exhaust or even really capture the meaning in the context of justification because we have to deal with the implications of what the law requires and thus only what God can grant to us. It would be my contention, then, that covenantal faithfulness cannot, of itself (either by God or by us or even by God through us), justify us because it does satisfy the demands and curse of the law (Galatians 3:10ff. & 4:1). Only God's free grace in Christ can and does save us for Christ Himself fulfilled the entire law on our behalf. In that sense, _Christ_ was covenantally faithful so that we might be righteous before God.


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## elreydelospecadores (Aug 3, 2013)

Does righteousness (when referring to God in some contexts) mean covenantal faithfulness in the OT?
What are the arguments against this meaning in Paul's letters?

Are you refering to a quote from N. T. Wright?


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## arapahoepark (Aug 3, 2013)

elreydelospecadores said:


> Does righteousness (when referring to God in some contexts) mean covenantal faithfulness in the OT?
> What are the arguments against this meaning in Paul's letters?
> 
> Are you refering to a quote from N. T. Wright?



A little. The OT stuff goes beyond him though.


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## arapahoepark (Aug 4, 2013)

Found a few interesting things for others as well:The Demonstration of the Righteousness of God in Romans 3:25,26 Published in Journal for the Study of the New Testament 2 (7): 2-32. - Desiring God

Being Made Righteous in Pauline Theology


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