# The word, "righteous"



## cih1355 (May 25, 2004)

Are there different ways that the word, &quot;righteous&quot;, is used? Romans 3:10 says that there is none righteous. Matthew 25:46 says that the righteous will go into eternal life. Malachi 3:18 defines the righteous as those who serve God.


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## Scott Bushey (May 25, 2004)

[quote:89240b7318][i:89240b7318]Originally posted by cih1355[/i:89240b7318]
Are there different ways that the word, &quot;righteous&quot;, is used? Romans 3:10 says that there is none righteous. Matthew 25:46 says that the righteous will go into eternal life. Malachi 3:18 defines the righteous as those who serve God. [/quote:89240b7318]

There is none righteous! Those righteous people that &quot;go into eternal life&quot; are made righteous in HIM. It is because of HIM; Our righteousness is [i:89240b7318]in HIM[/i:89240b7318]. So, in that way are we righteous.


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## pastorway (May 25, 2004)

Yes the word can have different meanings depending upon the context in which it is used.

Scott is correct, too, that none of us are righteous on our own, but because the righteousness of Christ has been imputed to us now we are counted as righteous in Him!

Phillip

[Edited on 5-26-04 by pastorway]


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## andreas (May 26, 2004)

&quot;Surely shall one say,in the Lord have i righteousness&quot; Isa 45:24

&quot;He hath made him to be sin for us,who new no sin,that we might be made the righteousness of God in him&quot;.2 Corr.5:21

Christ's righteousness is imputed to us by faith,effectual,saving faith.
andreas.


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## Puritanhead (Dec 27, 2004)

Our carnal works are like filthy rags in his eyes (Isa. 64:6). It's just like the verse --- "except your righteousness exceed that of the scribes and Pharisees..." Scripture makes it clear that it's not of works, but the fruit of saving faith is good works. The righteousness of Christ is imputed to the believer's account, and through His perfect righteousness and perfect obedience we're reconciled to God in open arms and love.


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## turmeric (Dec 27, 2004)

Moral righteousness - we have none.

Imputed righteousness, i.e.right standing before God - we have in Christ.

Right heart orientation toward God, i.e.loving Him/hating sin - we have because of the new regenerate nature the Holy Spirit has given us.

Is this an ok formulation?


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## alwaysreforming (Dec 27, 2004)

Wasn't Noah called "righteous"?
And a few others?


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## VirginiaHuguenot (Dec 27, 2004)

> _Originally posted by alwaysreforming_
> Wasn't Noah called "righteous"?
> And a few others?



In the case of Noah, here is what is recorded in Genesis 6:

Gen 6:8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD. 

Gen 6:9 These [are] the generations of Noah: Noah was a just man [and] perfect in his generations, [and] Noah walked with God. 

The key is that Noah found grace. His righteousness is found in Christ not himself. 

This is confirmed in Hebrews 11:7 - 

By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith.


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## alwaysreforming (Dec 27, 2004)

I'm at work and don't have my Bible, but were not others also referred to as righteous? If my memory serves me, perhaps Job, and maybe Abraham and a few others...?

(Now I obviously don't believe they were perfectly righteous, such as required by God. But that's what this thread is about, so we have to deal with it and put it in its proper understanding.)


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## VirginiaHuguenot (Dec 27, 2004)

Job "was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil" (Job 1.1 and 8; 2.3)

Abraham "believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness" (Gen. 15.6; Gal. 3.6 ff; Heb. 11.8 ff). 

Besides them, there was also: 

Elisabeth and Zacharias who "were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless" (Luke 1.6).

Asa whose "heart was perfect with the Lord all his days" (1 Kings 15.14; 2 Chron. 15.17).

Lot who was described by Peter as "that righteous man" (2 Pet. 2.7-8). 

Simeon "was just and devout, waiting for the consolation of Israel" (Luke 2.25). 

David was a "man after God's own heart" (1 Sam. 13.14; Acts 13.22). 

Enoch "walked with God" (Gen. 5.24). 

To understand all of these instances in Scripture, I think we must keep in mind that "there is none that doeth good, no not one" (Ps. 14.3; Rom. 3.10-12) and "there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good and sinneth not" (Ecc. 7.20). Jesus said, "Why callest thou Me good? there is none good, but one, that is, God" (Mk. 10.18). Truly, "there is no man that sinneth not" (1 Kings 8.46; 2 Chron. 6.36) and "If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1.8). As Isaiah says, "But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away" (Isa. 64.6) and "all have sinned and come short of the glory of God" (Rom. 3.23).

This being the case, we know therefore that man is only good or righteous or justified by faith in Christ, who alone was perfect, holy and righteous, as it is stated in Hebrews 4.15: "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin." Therefore, the imperative for sinful man is that we "be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith (Philippians 3.9)" and as believers we can truly say "But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption" (1 Cor. 1.30). This is the theme of Romans, Hebrews and indeed, the whole Bible.


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## alwaysreforming (Dec 27, 2004)

I agree, brother Andrew. This word, like so many others in Scripture, are not fully understood without their context, both immediate and in relation to God's Word as a whole. The words "just," and "righteous" might be identified with some people in terms of their relation to other people (relative to others). Just like we might use the word "good" as in, "That brother has a good heart." We don't mean PERFECTLY good, or good enough to please God apart from Christ, but simply a man of integrity and general uprightness.

The above is simply one example of how we need to be careful when interpreting Scripture not to immediately pour into a word its ultimate meaning (ie. the word "saved", or "world"). This can also be why "prooftexting" is often very common by cults and others wanting to mislead us. Its very easy to say, "Well, there's the word, our doctrine is proven by Scripture. Case closed."


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## VirginiaHuguenot (Dec 27, 2004)

Quite right!


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## street preacher (Dec 29, 2004)

Whether you are in the Old Covenant or the New Covenant God is always the giver of faith and salvation. All Old Covenant saints were made righteous because God chose to give them faith and through that faith they believed God and it was accounted to them for righteousness just as it is with us. The difference is that they were looking forward to Jesus and we look back to Jesus. The law was to show man how unable he is to please God without, well, God. It was to their condemnation.


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## street preacher (Dec 29, 2004)

God is our righteousness.


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## satz (Jan 3, 2005)

Is there any instance where the word 'righteous' is used to describe 'practical righteousness' in the sense of a regenerated, elect child of God living in accordance to God's will as best he or she can?

I've also read someone put forth the view that 'righteousness' is a legal declaration, whereas 'holiness' is a practical state...any thoughts?


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