# 2 Cor. 5:21



## cih1355 (Jan 31, 2005)

According to 2 Cor. 5:21, Jesus was made to be sin for us which means that our sin was imputed to Jesus. I have talked with some people who say that this verse means that Jesus was offered as a sin offering and not that our sin was imputed to Him. For those of you who know Greek, is it correct to say that this verse means that Jesus was a sin offering?


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## pastorway (Jan 31, 2005)

You don't need Greek for this one. The question itself proves that those taking this view are misunderstanding what a sin offering is by its very nature.

The offering, the sacrifice, the animal dies because of the sin of the person that has been _imputed _to it! The guilt of sin is removed from the sinner and imputed to the sacrifice.

Jesus was the offering because our sin was imputed to His account. That removes the sin from us, showing us mercy, and at the same time ensures justice in that the one guilty of the sin dies. (Rom 6:23). 


Phillip


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## cih1355 (Feb 4, 2005)

> _Originally posted by pastorway_
> You don't need Greek for this one. The question itself proves that those taking this view are misunderstanding what a sin offering is by its very nature.
> 
> The offering, the sacrifice, the animal dies because of the sin of the person that has been _imputed _to it! The guilt of sin is removed from the sinner and imputed to the sacrifice.
> ...



Phillip,

I told them what you told me. I showed them different passages in Leviticus where the sacrifices are discussed, but they keep saying that those passages do not say that the sins of the people were imputed to the sacrifices. They say that I am just making unwarranted assumptions.


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## Scott Bushey (Feb 4, 2005)

> _Originally posted by pastorway_
> You don't need Greek for this one. The question itself proves that those taking this view are misunderstanding what a sin offering is by its very nature.
> 
> The offering, the sacrifice, the animal dies because of the sin of the person that has been _imputed _to it! The guilt of sin is removed from the sinner and imputed to the sacrifice.
> ...



Phillip,
As a Jew, Yom Kippur is the day of atonement. The Hebrew word 'kippa' means 'cover'. From my understanding, the OT sacrifices never truly atoned for sin, it just covered it, put it on account sort of speak. The blood offering was a command of God. I don't believe it ever paid the price though...

Heb 10:1 For since the law has but a shadow of the good things to come instead of the true form of these realities, it can never, by the same sacrifices that are continually offered every year, make perfect those who draw near. 
Heb 10:2 Otherwise, would they not have ceased to be offered, since the worshipers, having once been cleansed, would no longer have any consciousness of sin? 
Heb 10:3 But in these sacrifices there is a reminder of sin every year. 
Heb 10:4 For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins. 
Heb 10:5 Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said, "Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired, but a body have you prepared for me; 

Curt, this is pretty clear to me: Key words; sanctified, offering. Phrase; "offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins", "But when Christ had offered for all time a single sacrifice for sins".

Heb 10:10 And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. 
Heb 10:11 And every priest stands daily at his service, offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. 
Heb 10:12 But when Christ had offered for all time a single sacrifice for sins, he sat down at the right hand of God,



[Edited on 2-4-2005 by Scott Bushey]


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## Contra_Mundum (Feb 4, 2005)

OT believers were really forgiven _provisionally_ on the basis of their participation in the OT system, provided that their hearts were circumcised and they were not merely playing Messrs. Formalist and Hypocrisy. See for example Leviticus 4:20, 26, 31, 5:10, etc. 

It was the system God set up, and did what it was capable of doing, and sinners participating by faith in what was promised through the system would know God had forgiven them. But it was inadequate by itself to deal decisively with sin. It was a system that pointed to a final sacrifice that would definitively answer the people's need of a Savior.

Curt, 
Ask your friends what the significance of Lev. 4:27ff, especially verse 29, the phrase, "He shall lay (literally press) his hand on the head of the sin offering." What was this act? What did it do? 

It was the act of tranferrence, that's what. Imputation was embedded in the sacrificial system. We find it further in the Day of Atonement, Lev. 16. See verse 5ff. Verse 9, 11, 15: references back to chapter 4. Verse 10, 21: again the laying on of hands. David refers to imputation in Psalm 32:1-2.

If they miss imputation in the OT sacrificial system, they are not taught or they are refusing to be.


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## andreas (Feb 4, 2005)

Greek NT - Textus Rec.) 2 Corinthians 5:21 ton gar mh gnonta amartian uper hmwn *amartian epoihsen* ina hmeiV ginwmeqa dikaiosunh qeou en autw 

"amartian epoihsen" poieo=to bear.amartia=sins

andreas


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## Contra_Mundum (Feb 4, 2005)

"poiew" = to make
in this case the 3rd sing. aorist active indicative = he made

reads literally: [the one (male) For (a post-positive, starts the sentence in English) not knowing sin (all this is direct object)], on behalf of (upon) us sin he made, in order that we (emphatic use) become righteousness of God in him.

Conveniently: "For him-who-knew-no-sin he made sin, on our behalf, in order that we ourselves (!) are become the righteousness of God in (or by) him."

[Edited on 2-5-2005 by Contra_Mundum]


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