# What is in Man that is not in Christ?



## ChristopherPaul (Sep 6, 2006)

> _ From John 2:23-25_
> Now when He was in Jerusalem at the Passover, during the feast, many believed in His name, observing His signs which He was doing. But Jesus, on His part, was not entrusting Himself to them, for He knew all men, and because He did not need anyone to testify concerning man, *for He Himself knew what was in man*.



What does this passage mean? Does it have any parallels to John 14:30:



> _From John 14:28-31_
> "You heard that I said to you, `I go away, and I will come to you.' If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced because I go to the Father, for the Father is greater than I. "Now I have told you before it happens, so that when it happens, you may believe. "I will not speak much more with you, *for the ruler of the world is coming, and he has nothing in Me*; but so that the world may know that I love the Father, I do exactly as the Father commanded Me. Get up, let us go from here.



What is meant by something being _in_ man? Do these verses speak to what is in control?


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## ReformedWretch (Sep 6, 2006)

Sin?


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## alwaysreforming (Sep 6, 2006)

Does it also have something to do with Jesus "knowing what was in a man's heart?" Meaning, He saw not just the outside, but He could tell what the person's true thoughts and feelings were (motivations, etc.)


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## VirginiaHuguenot (Sep 6, 2006)

I think the John 2 passage speaks to 1) the omniscience of Christ -- for who can know another's heart except God? (Prov. 14.10; Jer. 17.10; Rom. 8.27; Rev. 2.23); and 2) the depravity of sinful man in contrast with our sinless Lord Jesus Christ (Gen. 6.5; Jer. 17.9).

I think the John 14 passage is saying that Satan had no claim on Christ, ie., Christ has no concord with Belial (2 Cor. 6.15), and that there was no fault, guilt, corruption or avenue of entrapment in Christ which would unite him with Satan. 

In the former, Christ makes clear that he knows all things and that the heart of man is desparately wicked; in the latter, Christ makes clear that no sin dwells in him -- our high priest was tempted just as we are (Matt. 4) but was without sin (Heb. 4.15).


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## ReformedWretch (Sep 6, 2006)

So both Chris and I were sort of right?


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## ChristopherPaul (Sep 7, 2006)

Thanks Andrew.

Obviously Christ was not born in sin and man was - I really was not asking such a basic question as that.

I am more curious about the _what_ that is _in_ man but not _in_ Christ. Basically do these verses help explain the relationship between the devil and man's sin. 

Could John 2 have read, 'for He Himself knew that that ruler of the world was in [or in control of] man' and still mean the same thing?


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