# Voice from heaven



## Preach (Feb 26, 2006)

In Jesus' baptism, the Father says (in Luke and Mark) 'This' is My Son... Whereas (in Matthew) He says 'You' are My Son

I never noticed this before. Can someone help me with the Greek (If applicable). 

Did the Father speak once or twice? Can we account for the difference as simply the way that a human being recorded it? Thanks.
"In Christ",
Bobby


----------



## Contra_Mundum (Feb 26, 2006)

My first instinct is to chalk it up to variations in style. The one is general address, the other is personal address. Certainly as spoken _to_ Jesus the Word of God was intensely _personal._ But as the same announcement was meant for "public consumption" the announcement is presented as general in the text.

I would look for a theological reason (if there is one to be found) for the uniqueness of the Matthean presentation. Matthew's reason for writing specifically what he wrote (under the Spirit's direction) is going to be a little different from Mark's and Luke's choices respectively, of _what_ to include, and _how_ to present it.


----------



## Preach (Feb 27, 2006)

Was the pronouncement from heaven general (to everyone present or just John)? Peter also had a vision where the heavens opened. Maybe Jesus is experiencing a personal vision, but the crowd, or John alone experienced it publicly.

So, did the crowd hear the voice of the Ftaher?


----------



## Contra_Mundum (Feb 27, 2006)

Certainly God could restrict the announcement "from heaven" so that only one person or a couple people heard it. We read elsewhere that Paul alone heard the Voice on the Damascus road intelligibly, but others heard the "sound". During Jesus' ministry, at one of the other Voice-from-heaven occurences some people only heard "thunder". But it certinly seems as if the Voice was "loud". "Out of heaven" to me implies something like the sound of a loudspeaker, know what I mean?

But John could have related the story to others in the language of an observer, or as though God had addressed him instead of Jesus. From the standpoint of accurate testimony, I see no essential difference in either comment. Jesus is either the subject of the address or the object. And the statements amount to exactly the same thing = Jesus is the Son of God.

I've gone back and looked, and found that the gospel writers' testimony is reversed in your original post. It is Matthew that is _impersonal_ while the others use "YOU". As I said, it may be of more interest to consider the uniqueness of Matthew, asking why Matthew renders the address impersonally, "THIS ONE is...." How would that have impacted the original (presumably) Jewish audience? Would it help them connect Psalm 2:7 to Jesus? God spoke those words initially to David. In an apologetic encounter with Christ-rejecting Jews, the new declaration God makes to all within earshot that THIS IS THE ONE David is really writing about might be a powerful inducement to believe.

I'm not saying this is the definitive answer. It's just a suggestion to stimulate your thinking.

Blessings upon your studies, brother.


----------



## Preach (Mar 1, 2006)

Thanks Bruce


----------

