# Christ partaking of the sacraments



## Puritan Sailor (Mar 1, 2005)

I just thought this interesting. What did it mean for Christ to partake of both the OT and NT sacraments? He was not a sinner so they would not symbolize and seal to Him the same things they do to us. How would He have understood them and benefited from them for Himself?

[Edited on 3-1-2005 by puritansailor]


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## Scott Bushey (Mar 1, 2005)

Patrick,
Possibly for an example as well as 'fulfilling all righteousness", as in his example of baptism?

Mat 3:14 John would have prevented him, saying, "I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?" 
Mat 3:15 But Jesus answered him, "Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." Then he consented. 


[Edited on 3-1-2005 by Scott Bushey]


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## Larry Hughes (Mar 1, 2005)

Patrick,

That's an interesting question.

Since they point to Him and His work could it be, as a sign and seal, that in His humanity to reach down to us that He was pressing the sign and seal for us, so to speak? 

Just like the authentic king pressed his sign/seal on his work and decree to authenticate and seal it?

That may be a stretch. But it is an interesting question.

ldh


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## Arch2k (Mar 1, 2005)

> Since they point to Him and His work could it be, as a sign and seal, that in His humanity to reach down to us that He was pressing the sign and seal for us, so to speak?



I believe that a good part of the reason Christ "partaked" of the sacraments deals with the principle of the fading of the Old Testament dispensation, and the bringing in of the New Covenant.

According to the Westminster (see below), a Sacrament is "immediately instituted by God." Christ took the O.T. sacraments, and changed them from looking forward to his work to come, to looking back on his finished work. This was a gift to us, that would guide and help us to remember the gospel as we come to the table, and signify our need for cleansing through baptism.



> How would He have understood them and benefited from them for Himself?



I believe that in his humanity, Christ's work on earth was for the benefit of his elect (out of love and obedience to the Father), and not for himself. He was the ultimate example of "...he who is greatest among you shall be your servant" (Matt 23:11).

Chapter XXVII
Of the Sacraments
I. Sacraments are holy signs and seals of the covenant of grace,[1] immediately instituted by God,[2] to represent Christ and His benefits; and to confirm our interest in Him:[3] as also, to put a visible difference between those that belong unto the Church and the rest of the world;[4] and solemnly to engage them to the service of God in Christ, according to His Word.[5]


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## C. Matthew McMahon (Mar 1, 2005)

Hmmmmm. Shoudl I post now? That's chapter 10 in my latest book "Covenant Theology Made Easy" (the follow up work to "A Simple Overview...") You'll have to wait!!


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## Puritan Sailor (Mar 2, 2005)

If you want the long answer read Berkhof's Systematic Theology chapters on the covenant of redemption. The short answer is, he argues I think correctly, that for Christ, his partaking of the sacraments was a sign and seal to Him of the promises of the covenant of redemption made to Him by the Father, and that His partaking of them provided reassurance of those promises to Christ in His human nature.


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## SolaScriptura (Mar 2, 2005)

> _Originally posted by puritansailor_
> If you want the long answer read Berkhof's Systematic Theology chapters on the covenant of redemption. The short answer is, he argues I think correctly, that for Christ, his partaking of the sacraments was a sign and seal to Him of the promises of the covenant of redemption made to Him by the Father, and that His partaking of them provided reassurance of those promises to Christ in His human nature.



I think it is quite possible that in the case of Christ, partaking of the sacraments had the basic purpose of enabling Christ to identify with his people...


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## Scott Bushey (Mar 2, 2005)

Is it me or is this too simple? If one of the sacraments are baptism and Christ Himself said, "Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness," one might think that it would be the same for the supper, no?

The real question may be, what hhe meant by "fulfilling all righteousness". Possibly the answer there lies.

[Edited on 3-2-2005 by Scott Bushey]


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## Puritan Sailor (Mar 2, 2005)

> _Originally posted by Scott Bushey_
> Is it me or is this too simple? If one of the sacraments are baptism and Christ Himself said, "Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness," one might think that it would be the same for the supper, no?
> 
> The real question may be, what hhe meant by "fulfilling all righteousness". Possibly the answer there lies.



You are right. He certainly did fulfill all righteousness, but he was also the perfect human worshipper and participant of God's revealed religion. The sacraments are a major part of that religion. Christ partook of them. But not being a sinner, they couldn't sign and seal those promises to him the same way as us. That is why Berkhof looks for the answer in the promises to the Son in the covenant of redemption.


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