# "Hell" in KJV Old Testament



## nwink (Oct 19, 2011)

Why did the translators of the King James Version translate the word "sheol" sometimes as "hell" in the Old Testament? 

Note: I would prefer it if people respond to answer the question rather than debate translations.


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## VictorBravo (Oct 19, 2011)

I think the simple reason is because hell is an English word that fairly corresponds to the Hebrew word "sheol".

Hell, in English usage, comes from an old word meaning "hole" or "pit." It refers to the place of the dead. That's pretty much what sheol means too.


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## Todd King (Oct 19, 2011)

I think that perhaps the better question is: why do all of the modern translations leave. Untranslated. Every english speaking person knows what hell is and where hell is. Almost nobody knows what sheol is.


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## au5t1n (Oct 19, 2011)

Hell has a pretty wide semantic range. Hence we say that "Jesus descended into hell" because he was under the power of death for three days.


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## nwink (Oct 19, 2011)

Sorry for my dumb question, everyone, but are "hell" and the "lake of fire" the same thing? Is there the weeping and gnashing of teeth and the worm never dieing in "hell" or only in the "lake of fire"? Maybe I have been misunderstanding what "hell" means. 

Strong's defines "sheol" as:
1) sheol, underworld, grave, hell, pit
a) the underworld
b) Sheol - the OT designation for the abode of the dead
1) place of no return
2) without praise of God
3) wicked sent there for punishment
4) righteous not abandoned to it
5) of the place of exile (fig)
6) of extreme degradation in sin


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## au5t1n (Oct 19, 2011)

nwink said:


> Sorry for my dumb question, everyone, but are "hell" and the "lake of fire" the same thing? Is there the weeping and gnashing of teeth and the worm never dieing in "hell" or only in the "lake of fire"? Maybe I have been misunderstanding what "hell" means.



Most of the time when Jesus says hell, the word Gehenna is behind it, which refers to the place of torment for the wicked. When used to translate Hades/Sheol it usually has a broader range than that, though obviously for the wicked it is all one and the same.


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## nwink (Oct 19, 2011)

austinww said:


> Most of the time when Jesus says hell, the word Gehenna is behind it, which refers to the place of torment for the wicked. When used to translate Hades/Sheol it usually has a broader range than that, though obviously for the wicked it is all one and the same.



So when "hell" (the word "sheol") is used in the OT in reference to the _wicked_ going there, should we assume the word is referring both to them being sent into the grave AND being sent to a place of punishment...or would the meaning of the word be more context-dependent? If we should understand the word more in a context-dependent way, what verses that use "sheol" in the OT clearly refer to the punishment aspect? What I'm trying to understand is what I should think of when reading the OT and the word "hell" is used...to make sure I'm getting what is talked about.


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## Todd King (Oct 19, 2011)

In the OT, sheol is translated two different ways: hell (Job 11:8) and grave (Gen. 42:38). So, when reading the KJV, you can pretty well trust the translators. That being said, always look for content in context. That is the most important rule in anything we read.


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