# Humble Question For Those IN FAVOR of Women Deacons



## N. Eshelman (Dec 9, 2008)

Friends, 

I am not arguing for or against women deacons in this thread, but have a question: 

For those who *favor* women deacons, what is the exegesis of I Tim 3.12: 

*1 Timothy 3:12 Let deacons each be the husband of one wife, managing their children and their own households well.*

Thank you.


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## Davidius (Dec 9, 2008)

I'm not taking a side here, but a pro-deaconess argument for this passage revolves around the same principle that Presbyterians sometimes use to refute Baptist quotations of verses such as "Believe and be baptized." When a Baptist says this, the Presbyterian correctly responds that the speaker is addressing adults, telling them what they need to do. He then adds that this does not establish a universal teaching on the proper recipients of baptism. It does not logically follow that _only_ adults may be baptized. 

Now apply the same line of reasoning to this passage. Paul, speaking about the office of deacon, says that they should be "one-woman men." As above, this does not establish a universal teaching which would answer the question, is there an office of deaconness? The supporter of deaconnesses says that more passages need to be taken into consideration, as does the Presbyterian when Baptists proof-text. 

This argument obviously means little to a Baptist, but since you accept paedobaptism, I thought I would share it, since it's the one with which I am most familiar.

And it didn't generate much discussion at the time, but see this earlier thread of mine for a reference to Pliny the Younger, who writing at the end of the first century says that the Christians had _ministrae_ (ministers/female deacons). This doesn't relate to the OP specifically, but I found it very interesting as one who is also looking into this debate.


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## Wannabee (Dec 9, 2008)

Of course, context is necessary here. Verse eleven refers to women. The possessive pronoun, their, is not present in any manuscripts, as far as I know. Wives is an acceptable translation, but not necessary, or even favorable from a purely exegetical perspective. I know that wasn't the question, but the answer means nothing out of context. The position would be that Paul, in giving the qualifcation for deacons, gives specific qualifications for women as well, before continuing the qualifications. This makes sense in light of the fact that they, like men deacons, are called to be dignified (v. 8), not slanderers (double-tongued - 8), sober-minded (not addicted to much wine - 8) and faithful in all things (9). While these traits compare well with those of a male deacon and elder, not even the elders' wives are called to meet these requirements. 

I hope that answers your question, at least to a point.


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