# Propitiation and Romans 3:25



## Romans922 (Mar 13, 2007)

My friend had this question and I didn't know exactly how to answer. I did answer that it was at least a foreshadow, but the question is:

"Are OT sacrifices truly a form of propitiation even though their sins went unpunished (Rom. 3:25)? James Boice says yes, but I am trying to understand how this is so."


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## Chris (Mar 13, 2007)

My knee-jerk reaction is to throw out that OT sacrifices 'paid the interest' on our sins. 

I've heard that expression before; I'm not sure I'm comfortable with it.

At any rate, I hope this thread lives long as many will offer their thoughts. R3:23-26 is a beautiful passage...very beautiful.


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## Herald (Mar 13, 2007)

[bible]Hebrews 9:11-28[/bible]

I would not agree with Dr. Boice. Blood sacrifices in the Old Testament _hinted_ at propitiation, but they were not a form of propitiation. Propitiation is a *redemptive *work, animal sacrifices were not. Animal sacrifices assuaged God's wrath for a time. The blood of Christ satisfied God's wrath for all time.


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## Romans922 (Mar 14, 2007)

anything else on this?


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## ChristopherPaul (Mar 14, 2007)

Romans922 said:


> "Are OT sacrifices truly a form of propitiation even though their sins went unpunished (Rom. 3:25)? James Boice says yes, but I am trying to understand how this is so."



I would say no they are not truly a form of propitiation. James Boice certainly has studied such things more than I, but my understanding is Christ and Christ alone is the sole propitiation. The pleasing aroma of justice from a burnt sacrifice was only pleasing in that it was an image of a reality that is the pleasing satisfaction in crushing Christ (the last Adam) for our sins (cf: Isaiah 53:10).


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## Jimmy the Greek (Mar 14, 2007)

This may have some bearing  

Romans 3:24-26 NASB

24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; 
25 whom God displayed publicly as *a propitiation *in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He *passed over the sins previously committed*; 
26 for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.


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## Contra_Mundum (Mar 14, 2007)

If you look at Leviticus chapters 4, 5, and 6, you see repeatedly that _atonement_ is offered for sins through the sacrifices of the Tabernacle/Temple. And this phrase: "the sin which he hath done shall be forgiven him."

Boice, et al, is only pointing out the fact that God was _propitiated_ through the substitutionary sacrifices of the Old Covenant. Now the issue is *WHY* was he propitiated? Was it because "the blood of goats and bulls" _could_ take away sins? Not even. It was because, those sacrifices were done in faith of the Messiah, whose sacrifice they pointed to. They were tied to the One Sacrifice, when they were offered in faith.


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