# Daniel 9



## JM (Mar 16, 2009)

Why did the translators of the KJV capitalizes the "P" for "Messiah the Prince" in Dan. 9:25 but did not capitalize "prince" in v. 27? 

Why did the translators of the NKJV capitalize "Himself" in Dan. 9:26 and not "he" in v. 27?

Thanks.

j


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## Kim G (Mar 16, 2009)

I don't know the answer, but I know that dispensationalists believe that there are two princes spoken of in that passage, the Messiah and the Anti-Christ. That would explain why the second "prince" and "he" are not capitalized.


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## PointyHaired Calvinist (Mar 17, 2009)

Dispensationalists and others who aren't.

Most of the passage refers to the coming of Christ, however part also deals with the destruction of Jerusalem and the "one who makes desolate", If I recall correctly.


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