# "Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin"



## InSlaveryToChrist (Nov 14, 2010)

1 John 3
1Jn 3:6 *Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not*: *whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him*. 
1Jn 3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. 
1Jn 3:8 *He that committeth sin is of the devil*; *for the devil sinneth from the beginning*. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. 
1Jn 3:9 *Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin*; *for his seed remaineth in him*: *and he cannot sin, because he is born of God*. 
1Jn 3:10 In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: *whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother*.

I wonder if even the many Reformed Christians, who suggest that 1 John 3:9 is not to be taken literally, are correct. What I mean by that is not to promote the heretical conclusion that we, as newborn Christians, can be sinless in this life. What I'm trying to say is our confusion over such passages as 1 John 3:9 might be due to our lack of discernment of the design and structure of our human beings. 
Now, I realize this may give you a very offensive impression, as if I had discovered some secret key to understanding these problematic verses of the Bible struggled with through the whole history of Christianity. I am NOT saying that at all! What I AM saying is that how these verses have generally been "solved" (by reasoning, for instance, that there exists a rule in the Greek grammar that present verbs indicate continual action) is not necessarily the only right answer.

As to how I've come to see these verses myself, the declaration, "Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin," is to be seen as regarding only the new man in us (thus also called "the inward man" - Rom 7:22), "which after God is created in *righteousness* and *true holiness*." When in John 3:6 it says, "whosoever sinneth hath not _seen_ [God], neither _known_ him," I find that very similar to what is said in Ephesians 4:20-22, "But ye have not so _learned_ Christ; If so be that ye have _heard_ him, and have been _taught_ by him, as the truth is in Jesus: That ye put off concerning the former conversation _the old man_, which is corrupt according to the deceitful lusts;" Seeing the relation between these two passages (John 3:6 & Eph 4:20-22), I think it's reasonable to conclude both are referring solely to _the old man _and his reigning over the human being.

Consider the words, "for his seed remaineth in him", in John 3:9 as the explanation to one's obedience toward God. In my humble opinion, the "seed" here is not to be referred to the new man, but rather the grace of God. I think John Gill explains this well.

My time is limited here, so I'd be interested in hearing your opinions on my way of approach in this specific issue. I might not be able to respond to your comments for a week.

In Christ our Lord,

Brother Samuel


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