# The Moabites and Jesus



## Me Died Blue (Nov 3, 2004)

In Humanities class, we were comparing the different Old Testament historical books, and talked about the fact that in Ezra 9, it was the Moabites with whom Israel was impurely intermixing that warranted their repentance and confession of separation. However, in the book of Ruth, Ruth was also from the tribe of Moab, and yet it was through her that David was eventually descended, and thus Jesus. Our professor asked a rhetorical thought question about the relationship between those two facts, and what they mean in light of each other.

One thought I had is that nowhere in the book of Ezra do we actually see the Lord condemning Israel's Moabite intermarriage as unlawful and demanding repentance, but it is only Ezra's proclamation after apologizing to the Lord.

What other things come to mind on the relationship between those two occurrences?


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## Puritan Sailor (Nov 3, 2004)

The issue is not about their Moabite ancestory but whether or not they would submit themselves to God. For Ruth turned to God, "Your God shall be my God." In Ezra's day, the concern was that these foriegn wives did not in fact turn to God but were turning there Isrealite spouses away from God. That's the difference. There was no repentence on their part which was key if foriegners were to be welcomed into the community. The God of Israel must become their God.


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## Me Died Blue (Nov 3, 2004)

Thanks - that interpretation indeed makes sense upon going back and reading Ezra again, since it speaks of the "_practice_ of abominations" by the foreigners, and thus distinguishes the discrimination from ethnic discrimination.


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## Puritan Sailor (Nov 4, 2004)

You can also see this in David's Mighty men (2Sam.23?). Listed among his mighty men are some Gentiles, the most prominent of whom was Uriah the Hittite, Bathseba's husband.


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