# 2 John question



## KevinInReno (Jan 15, 2014)

How exactly would you deal with a Roman apologist using 2 John to defend their high esteem for Mary? I know commentators often allude to the name of the church being in the first line or allude to another woman (not an address to Mary herself), but that doesn't exactly feel like a sufficient enough defense for me, because Roman Catholics constantly have churches named after Mary. That wouldn't be shaky ground for them, it would still somewhat affirm the larger point in their eyes. Can anyone lead me to, or provide me with a more robust commentary/apologetic on this issue?

I already have some thoughts for an approach, but wanted other input.


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## KevinInReno (Jan 15, 2014)

My brother pointed out how verse 7 would seem to exclude any potential of it being written to Mary. Specifically John reminding that Jesus came in the flesh. That would be a foolish inclusion if to Mary.


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