# Maiden Names



## sosipater (Oct 6, 2005)

Is there a Biblical/Christian reason for women to drop their maiden names and take up their husbands name? I have always just assumed there was, but as I have thought about it I am at a loss. 

Any ideas?

Thanks,
Russ


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## fredtgreco (Oct 6, 2005)

The woman and the man become one flesh, so it stands to reason that they have one family name. Since the woman is called to submit to the man, and not vice verse, she takes the man's name.

Also, the man is called to "take the woman to wife" not the reverse.


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## Saiph (Oct 6, 2005)

Numbers 30.

A woman is always under the authority and protection of her father (if not married), or her husband (if married), or a widow and therefore under the authority and protection of the church.


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## Saiph (Oct 6, 2005)

I was wrong about the widow and divorced woman. It has been a while since I read it.

Numbers 30


> 3 If a woman vows a vow to the LORD and binds herself by a pledge, while within her father's house in her youth, 4 and her father hears of her vow and of her pledge by which she has bound herself and says nothing to her, then all her vows shall stand, and every pledge by which she has bound herself shall stand. 5 But if her father opposes her on the day that he hears of it, no vow of hers, no pledge by which she has bound herself shall stand. And the LORD will forgive her, because her father opposed her.
> 
> 
> 6 If she marries a husband, while under her vows or any thoughtless utterance of her lips by which she has bound herself, 7 and her husband hears of it and says nothing to her on the day that he hears, then her vows shall stand, and her pledges by which she has bound herself shall stand. 8 But if, on the day that her husband comes to hear of it, he opposes her, then he makes void her vow that was on her, and the thoughtless utterance of her lips by which she bound herself. And the LORD will forgive her. 9 (But any vow of a widow or of a divorced woman, anything by which she has bound herself, shall stand against her.) 10 And if she vowed in her husband's house or bound herself by a pledge with an oath, 11 and her husband heard of it and said nothing to her and did not oppose her, then all her vows shall stand, and every pledge by which she bound herself shall stand. 12 But if her husband makes them null and void on the day that he hears them, then whatever proceeds out of her lips concerning her vows or concerning her pledge of herself shall not stand. Her husband has made them void, and the LORD will forgive her. 13 Any vow and any binding oath to afflict herself, her husband may establish,[a] or her husband may make void. 14 But if her husband says nothing to her from day to day, then he establishes all her vows or all her pledges that are upon her. He has established them, because he said nothing to her on the day that he heard of them. 15 But if he makes them null and void after he has heard of them, then he shall bear her iniquity."



Not sure if it relates to maiden names though.


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## biblelighthouse (Oct 6, 2005)

> _Originally posted by fredtgreco_
> The woman and the man become one flesh, so it stands to reason that they have one family name. Since the woman is called to submit to the man, and not vice verse, she takes the man's name.
> 
> Also, the man is called to "take the woman to wife" not the reverse.






Also, we know that God created marriage as a picture of Christ and the church (cf. Ephesians 5:22-33). And when a person is put "in Christ" and is regenerated, that person takes on the name of Christ (i.e. "Christian").

So, just as we take on Christ's name when we are joined to him, a woman takes on her husband's name when she is joined to him, because marriage is a picture of Christ and the church.


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## Romans922 (Oct 6, 2005)

Woman is the glory of man. 

Also, the woman submitting and humbling herself to be identified with her husband. Like Ruth to Boaz.


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## sosipater (Oct 11, 2005)

I just wanted to say thanks for the great answers to my question.



Russ


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