# Mathew 5:20 Unless your righteosness...



## Eoghan (Sep 10, 2009)

In discussing the text (Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus- Bivin/Blizzard) much is made of the "underlying Hebrew text", of which we have the Greek translation , in english.

The word for *righteousness* is _tsedekhah _(Hebrew) and by the time of Jesus it had taken on a secondary more narrow meaning - almsgiving. The older OT meaning is of righteosness in the context of salvation or deliverance. Thus Jesus is playing on words - effectively saying unless our righteosness is bigger than the almsgiving of the Pharisees we cannot enter the kingdom of God.

Now leaving aside the question of the Hebrew undertext  I cannot see that there is much of note here. Indeed I feel that this "explanation" plays down the text.

In Greek there is the suggestion that a QUALITATIVELY different righteousness is required. (Grace v's Law) This seems to be lost in this "explanation". I can't see that this "Hebrew" is helpful at all.

Every time I come across this emphasis on the "Hebrew" it goes off like a dampp squib, revealing nothing that the analogy of faith and a careful contextual exposition would not reveal.

When it does give a different nuance, I want to stick with the Greek!


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## Herald (Sep 10, 2009)

Even if almsgiving was the direct Greek translation it doesn't remove the fact that the Pharisees were trusting in a works righteousness. The distinction between grace and law still stands (Romans 4).


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## au5t1n (Sep 10, 2009)

My only question to them would be, *what* "underlying Hebrew text"? There is no proof it wasn't written in Greek to begin with. Jesus probably taught in Aramaic, but the Greek fluency of Apostles like Peter and John, who were fisherman, indicates that Koine was common knowledge. How do we know there even *is* an "underlying Hebrew text"?


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## Eoghan (Sep 10, 2009)

Herald said:


> Even if almsgiving was the direct Greek translation it doesn't remove the fact that the Pharisees were trusting in a works righteousness. The distinction between grace and law still stands (Romans 4).



almsgiving is the translation of the *Hebrew*! 

There would appear to be an attempt on the part of some to deny that the NT can be understood in Greek. It requires a knowledge of the Hebrew "original". In their theology the original was Hebrew. There is "some" evidence for Mathew being written in Hebrew, this from Eusebius. (Still to check up on him)

In my opinion if the original _was_ Hebrew it is lost! We have the Greek text and I trust in providence. 

It will take a lot more than a Greek-Hebrew lexicon constructed using the LXX to "recover" the original! Yes Hebrew idioms are interesting, form the background etc... but it is the Greek which providence has given us.


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## Herald (Sep 10, 2009)

> but it is the Greek which providence has given us.


Fini


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## Eoghan (Sep 11, 2009)

Herald said:


> > but it is the Greek which providence has given us.
> 
> 
> Fini



You and I can agree on that but I have at least one brother who does not. He cannot understand why the spiritual hairs on my neck stand up confused when I hear expositions not of the text we have (Greek) but what it "really" meant in Hebrew!

He just can't understand why I object to expositions that go way beyond illuminating a scripture with Hebrew/Jewish background. I am talking word studies *on the Hebrew *that is meant by the greek


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## busdriver72 (Sep 12, 2009)

The almsgiving of the Pharisees was done witht the sounding of horns..."hey, look at me, ain't I righteous?" It was was for show, and it was hyprocritical. It was self-righteous, not done from faith or love for God.
I do not see a conflict here. If you are saved by the righteousness which comes from God (made righteous through faith in Christ) then that faith will produce true righteousness which comes from faith and love.
Either way, it's a righteousness that exceeds that of the Pharisees regardless of the Hebrew or the Greek.


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## Peairtach (Sep 12, 2009)

Both our justifying righteousness exceeds that of the Pharisees - it is that of Christ Himself; and our practical or sanctifying righteousness exceeds that of the Pharisees because the good works of believers are from a sanctified heart and are presented to God through Christ.

Our righteousness should also exceed that of the Pharisees outwardly so that men would see our good deeds and glorify God - although not for the motive of getting praise for one's self, obviously.


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## Eoghan (Sep 13, 2009)

*finding the root?*



Eoghan said:


> Herald said:
> 
> 
> > > but it is the Greek which providence has given us.
> ...



I have been mulling over why my brother is so ready to throw away the Greek and go with a "recovered" Hebrew underlying text.

It is a tortuous trail but here goes.  


The modern church has lost it's way - why? The answer is that it has not made disciples.
Why has it failed to make disciples? It does not have a programme - more specifically the Torah!
recovering the Torah in the New Testament is the next logical step. 
This predisposes my brother to accept the least sniff of a Hebrew original for Mathew
Having accepted there is a Hebrew undertext for Mathew there is then a predisposition to look for Hebrew elsewhere

The start of this thread of thought focuses on our (collective) failings in the state of the church. Having spent some time in reading Jonathan Edwards recently it really strikes me how revival is not so much human in origin as the action of the Holy Spirit. Jonathan can speak quite dispassionately about the withdrawal of the outpouring of the Holy Spirit without any self-recrimination. The Holy Spirit is sovereign.

My brother is Arminian. Were he in Jonathan Edwards shoes I believe he would feel responsible for the dry spells (normal) Jonathan experienced between unusual outpourings of the Spirit in revival. Where a calvanist would pray for revival an arminian looks for a better programme, a better message, the lost emphasis on "torah", the Hebrew undertext.

This perhaps explains the growth in the Hebrew Roots Movement. Disillusioned Arminians are ripe for plucking. 

I hope my brother would not be offended with this diagnosis. Full marks to him for looking in scripture for the answer - just not in the Old Covenant and not looking through the new testament greek as though it were transparent - at some sort of shadowy Hebrew undertext!


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## Andrew P.C. (Sep 13, 2009)

Eoghan said:


> Herald said:
> 
> 
> > Even if almsgiving was the direct Greek translation it doesn't remove the fact that the Pharisees were trusting in a works righteousness. The distinction between grace and law still stands (Romans 4).
> ...



Didn't Christ use the greek version of the OT when He quoted from scripture?


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