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His human body died, but His humanity and divinity never have parted since His incarnation, nor will they ever. Your question does bring up an interesting point though. Did a nature die on the cross or a person? The Son is defined as a person of the Trinity and this person is united to a fully human what? Nature? Christ is fully man and fully God. Aren't we considered persons as men? We are not considered natures. Gordon Clark brings up these questions in The Incarnation and yes, I know that Nestorianism is/was considered a heresy, but I think he was onto something. How can the second person of the Trinity all of a sudden be defined as a nature in His incarnation?
Well, if you want to play that game... how does a person die?
What does it mean to say a 'person' died?
But a body isn't a person. Persons have bodies.
Indeed, the person of Jesus (fully human and fully divine) immediately went to be in paradise when the body died.
The body is a property of a nature (or essence). The body is the property of Jesus' human nature.
In this sense you can say his human nature died (though technically it didn't).
If I said that my business was personal, would my business be a person?
He's not. The second person "takes on" a human nature.
We are persons, but we still have natures. Angels are persons too, and so is God.
We are considered persons as men, and so was Christ. The person of Christ *had* a human and divine nature. One person, two natures.
Oh, forgot to add that Scripture never defines 'nature' and 'person' and so the Clarkians are hard pressed to say that they 'know' what a 'person' and a 'nature' is. And so they don't need a moderator to close the thread, they see themselves out before they even come in.
We are persons, but we still have natures. Angels are persons too, and so is God.
We are considered persons as men, and so was Christ. The person of Christ *had* a human and divine nature. One person, two natures.
but I find it interesting that he was actually attacking the Roman Catholic's false doctrine of Mary, the mother of God when he put forth his understanding of the incarnation. I wonder if this bias earned him the title of heretic.
Nestorius, in Greek, Νεστόριος (c. 386–c. 451) was Archbishop of Constantinople from 10 April 428 to 22 June 431. He received his clerical training as a pupil of Theodore of Mopsuestia in Antioch and gained a reputation for his sermons that led to his enthronement by Theodosius II as Archbishop following the death of Sisinnius I in 428.
Nestorius is considered to be the originator of the Christological heresy known as Nestorianism, which emerged when he began preaching against the title Theotokos (in Greek, Θεοτόκος) or Mother of God, beginning to be used of the Virgin Mary. His immediate antagonist was Cyril, bishop of Alexandria. Alongside the Christological debate, other factors were to come into play in the crisis that swiftly arose. These included a political struggle between the supporters of the See of Alexandria and the See of Antioch, the influence of the Emperor over the See of Constantinople, and the patriarchal primacy of the Pope.
The theological debate centered on the use of the title of "Mother of God" (Theotokos/Θεοτόκος) for the Virgin Mary, which Nestorius did not recognize, preferring in his sermons, "Mother of Christ" (Christotokos/Χριστοτόκος/), on the grounds that the former title compromised Jesus' humanity. His views were opposed by Cyril who argued that Nestorius was actually denying the reality of the Incarnation by making Jesus Christ into two different persons, (one human, one divine), sharing one body. A fuller discussion is at Nestorianism.
Bingo. The only extant writings we have from Nestorius are, for the most part, fragments, and most of which we base our information concerning him is drawn from the writings of his avowed enemy, Cyril of Alexandria, who can't be said to be the most objective representative of Nestorius. I tend to be one of those who has serious doubts as to whether Nestorius was genuinely guilty of Nestorianism. Patristic studies abound with literature representing both sides of this argument.Well, many people debate about whether Nestorius really held to NestorianISM, but what is labeled NestorianISM is heresy. Jesus is one person, not two.
You can ask Rich what he meant.
I wouldn't say "the" property of Jesus' human nature was his body, I said that was *a* property.
We can say Jesus died for our sins, just like when you die I can say Sean died. But, really, that just means that your body died.
Well, on property that didn't die is the property of having God's image. That didn't die. There's many others, simply a moments reflection should suffice for you to figure this out. I'll assume the have the requistite cognitive abilities to do so. If not, let me know and I'll try and help.
See my qualifications above (and in the sentence you quoted). Try to play your schoolyard trap games with someone else. Funny, for a guy who wants to "think" through these issues, you're being extremely unhelpful.
I nowhere equated human nature with the body (as I explicitly denied above). But, yes, "it" (the body) is a property of human nature. Properties are had by things. So, an apple might have the property of being red and crisp. Likewise, a human may have the property of being embodied.
Precise or common lanuage? You are not your body, so when you die should we say "it" died?
Well, if we want to be technical, but you don't always need to be. The Scripture writers were not Clarkians, Sean. No, we can say Jesus died.
Technically, persons are not bodies, Sean. If so, then if I cut your arm off, you'd be a different person.
No, not "really just." But, "The Word became flesh."
Orthodox in respect to what? You're the one who threw the creeds out here. You're the one who wanted to challenge the creeds.
I already told you one property that didn't die. Here's another: Jesus' human nature had the property of being finite, finitness didn't die, or else all finite people would have died! Want another? Jesus human nature had the property of 'being brown haired.' "Being brown hairdness' didn't die.
Good, so God's essence is personal, and that's all Van Til meant.
Yet this is not the whole truth of the matter. We do assert that God, that is, the whole Godhead, is one person. We have noted how each attribute is coextensive with the being of God. We are compelled to maintain this in order to avoid the notion of an uninterpreted being of some sort. In other words, we are bound to maintain the identity of the attributes of God with the being of God in order to avoid the specter of brute fact. In a similar manner we have noted how theologians insist that each of the persons of the Godhead is co-terminous with the being of the Godhead. But all this is not to say that the distinctions of the attributes are merely nominal. Nor is it to say that the distinctions of the persons are merely nominal. We need both the absolute cotermineity of each attribute and each person with the whole being of God, and the genuine significance of the distinctions of the attributes and the persons . . . Over against all other beings, that is, over against created beings, we must therefore hold that God’s being presents an absolute numerical identity. And even within the ontological Trinity we must maintain that God is numerically one. He is one person. When we say that we believe in a personal God, we do not merely mean that we believe in a God to whom the adjective “personality” may be attached. God is not an essence that has personality; He is absolute personality.
So, if you're going to have integrity, drop your critique of Van Til, pick on his *meaning* rather than his *words.*
(Oh, here's another one, propositions aren't sentences. But the way you're arguing, I suspect if I burned a sentence in one of Clark's books, you;d say I burned a proposition.)
I'm confused.
I asked for a definition of 'nature' or 'person' from Scripture.
The above is what Sean gave me.
Does Sean think this was a definition for 'nature' or for 'person?'
In that case, 1 day old fetus' aren't persons since they can't "think."
Scripturalism - *yawn*.
It is safe to say that when Jesus cried out, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me" that it was not a signal that His deity had left him and only the human Jesus was left to die?
On his view, living people can be dead.
Paul hasn't even attempted to define "nature"
essence.
And so one person had two essences in the incarnation. Just like three persons have one essence in the trinity.
1 a : the permanent as contrasted with the accidental element of being
b : the individual, real, or ultimate nature of a thing especially as opposed to its existence <a painting that captures the essence of the land>
c : the properties or attributes by means of which something can be placed in its proper class or identified as being what it is
2 : something that exists : ENTITY
3 a (1) : a volatile substance or constituent (as of perfume)
(2) : a constituent or derivative possessing the special qualities (as of a plant or drug) in concentrated form; also : a preparation of such an essence or a synthetic substitute b : ODOR, PERFUME
4 : one that possesses or exhibits a quality in abundance as if in concentrated form <she was the essence of punctuality>
5 : the most significant element, quality, or aspect of a thing or person <the essence of the issue>
Bottom line: Sean thinks dead people live.
In one sense I agree, not in another. People face death in the sense that they are separated from their bodies, their time on earth is cut short, etc. But, in another sense, those people are alive and well with Jesus.
This is a property-thing view of people. I reject it. For one, it makes 1 day old fetuses not people.
How I know that Jesus ahd brown hair is by induction.
Well, if you have problems with Van Til, and you want to keep pushing this charge - which, upon analysis, you only disagree with his words, then you need to salvage Clark:
But that existential propositions of the economic trinity are what individuate the persons makes the realtionship between the persons contingent, not necessary.
I never said that Clark thinks sentences are propositions.
Pastor King,
What do you think of Theodoret's Dialogues (Polymorphus) on this topic? I thought they were very good, and was impressed that Theodoret did not consider Nestorius to really be guilty as charged.
Pastor King,
What do you think of Theodoret's Dialogues (Polymorphus) on this topic? I thought they were very good, and was impressed that Theodoret did not consider Nestorius to really be guilty as charged.
I am sympathetic to Theodoret, but being an Antiochian exegete he represents the wide gap in this controversy between Antiochian and Alexandrian exegesis, the former holding to a more wooden and literal interpretation and the latter to an allegorical hermeneutic.Pastor King,
What do you think of Theodoret's Dialogues (Polymorphus) on this topic? I thought they were very good, and was impressed that Theodoret did not consider Nestorius to really be guilty as charged.
Yes, Theodoret felt vindicated by Chalcedon 451 (his understanding of it being one of the differing interpretations of that council); and then lo and behold at the 2nd Council of Constantinople in 553, Theodoret (along with Theodore of Mopsuestia) and his christology was condemned again as heretical. The 2nd Council of Constantinople in 553 simply offered an Alexandrian interpretation of Chalcedon (451), and on and on the controversy went with people continuing to accuse one another of either holding to the error of Apollinarianism on the one hand and Nestorianism on the other, and various mediating positions in the midst of the polarizations which ensued.Theodoret is an interesting character. I was just reading about him last night. He tried to walk the fine line between Cyril and Nestorius. He got deposed in the robber synod because of this but then restored at Chalcedon. Church politics were interesting to say the least back then.
Meyendorff: The Chalcedonian definition of 451—two natures united in one hypostasis, yet retaining in full their respective characteristics—was therefore a necessary correction of Cyril’s [of Alexandria] vocabulary. Permanent credit should be given to the Antiochians—especially to Theodoret—and to Leo of Rome for having shown the necessity of this correction, without which Cyrillian Christology could easily be, and actually was, interpreted in a Monophysite sense by Eutyches and his followers. John Meyendorff, Byzantine Theology: Historical Trends and Doctrinal Themes, 2nd rev. ed. (New York: Fordham University Press, 1983), p. 33.
This is a property-thing view of people. I reject it. For one, it makes 1 day old fetuses not people.
For as he thinks in his heart, so is he. (Pro 23:7 nkj)
I want it in laymen's terms what people here think of Nestorius....
Thoughts on this:
http://www.Jesus-is-savior.com/Wolves/macarthur-gods_blood.htm
This line of reasoning can open the door to serious error concerning the Trinity and the incarnation. It can lead a person to say, "Deity has no blood." Dr. MacArthur's statement that "God…has no body and hence no blood" calls into question whether the Apostle Paul was right or not in Acts 20:28. Is Dr. MacArthur saying that the Apostle Paul was wrong to believe "so strongly in the unity of God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ"? When he says that "God…has no body and hence no blood" he seems to question Paul's belief in the deity of Christ. I for one think it is MacArthur who is wrong, not the Apostle Paul! MacArthur's statement can lead to a very serious error, known as Nestorianism, which arose in the fifth century.