toddpedlar
Iron Dramatist
When the Puritans and Reformers spoke of Christ's Atonement as being "sufficient for all", the emphasis was different than it is now, when people use the same language. It seems to me that in the 16th/17th century writings when sufficiency is mentioned, the primary aim is to emphasize the grand scope of Christ's Atonement - that NONE, if God decreed it, would fail to be covered, for Christ's blood is of infinite value and Christ's righteousness a limitless and perfect righteousness.
Today, when "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect" is used, it seems the primary purpose of "sufficient for all" is to somehow get God off the hook in an effort to make Him more appealing... that he really intends it for everyone but, alas, some don't take advantage (and He knew this, so despite his intent, it's really only effective for those whom He elected).
Today, when "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect" is used, it seems the primary purpose of "sufficient for all" is to somehow get God off the hook in an effort to make Him more appealing... that he really intends it for everyone but, alas, some don't take advantage (and He knew this, so despite his intent, it's really only effective for those whom He elected).