chuckd
Puritan Board Junior
In 1 Cor. 6, the justification for insisting lawsuits between two believers be judged before the church and not the secular state is "Or do you not know that the saints will judge the world?" and the state has "no standing in the church."
How does this not also apply to criminal matters? i.e. if believers will judge the world and angels, how about criminal matters "in this life" (1 Cor 6:3)?
These two passages seem to divide the jurisdiction of the civil magistrate - civil and criminal. The state may judge criminal cases (Rom. 13:4), but as "unrighteous" (1 Cor. 6:1) does not have the "competence" (1 Cor. 6:2) to try civil cases between two believers.
How does this not also apply to criminal matters? i.e. if believers will judge the world and angels, how about criminal matters "in this life" (1 Cor 6:3)?
These two passages seem to divide the jurisdiction of the civil magistrate - civil and criminal. The state may judge criminal cases (Rom. 13:4), but as "unrighteous" (1 Cor. 6:1) does not have the "competence" (1 Cor. 6:2) to try civil cases between two believers.