1 Corinthians 1:2 the significance of the past tense of "sanctify"

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Eoghan

Puritan Board Senior
I had already noted the past tense (as had Seth Yi from sermonaudio) it speaks of something done on becoming a Christian. Given the problems of the church at Corinth that is perhaps not surprising. It is also reassuring, to me personally. Having just finished six months (approx) in 1 Samuel the difference between David and Saul is not that one was sinless and the other a sinner, the difference is what they did when confronted with it. David's response was that of a man spiritually alive, Saul's that of a man spiritually dead.

The Corinthian christians were not perfect - their standing before God however was/is/will be not theirs but in Christ. I find this reassuring and expect that my approach to Romans 7 is influenced by the contrast between Saul and David and the past tense of verse 2. Paul does not preclude false profession, in identifying the Christians as sanctified judicially at the moment of trusting in Christ.

[BIBLE]1 Corinthians 1:2[/BIBLE]

Q. Any objections to the past tense of sanctify?
 

Logan

Puritan Board Senior
Short answer: no.

Long answer (from Hodge)
This is explanatory of the preceding clauses, and teaches us the nature of the church. It consists of the sanctified. The word translated to sanctify, means to cleanse. And as sin is presented under the twofold aspect of guilt and pollution, to sanctify, or to cleanse from sin, may mean either to expiate guilt by an atonement, or to renew by the Holy Ghost. It is used for expiation by sacrifice in Heb 2:11, 10:14, 13:12 and elsewhere. The word also means to render sacred by consecrating any person or thing to the service of God. In the present case all these ideas may be united. The church consists of those whose guilt is expiated, who are inwardly holy, and who are consecrated to God as his peculiar people.
 
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