1 Corinthians 2

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Toasty

Puritan Board Sophomore
Paul says in vv. 1 - 4 that he did not come with superiority of speech or of wisdom and that his message and preaching were not in persuasive words of wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and power.

Did the historical background of 1 Corinthians have to do with people who were impressed with flowery speech without substance?

Paul was not against the idea of developing good communication skills. Paul did not intend to impress the Corinthians with his eloquence. Is this correct?

What are the persuasive words of wisdom?

What does it mean to say that the natural man cannot understand the things of the Spirit of God (v.14)?
 
Natural man cannot be persuaded to believe solely by the use of reason or eloquence. You may sooner reason a physically blind man into seeing than a spiritually blind man into doing so. Paul's intention is that it is ultimately by supernatural means that man is saved, not natural means.
 
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