1 Corinthians 7v39 - why single out widows?

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Eoghan

Puritan Board Senior
[BIBLE]1 Corinthians 7:39[/BIBLE]

I was finishing off chapter 7 (a bit of a slog to be honest) and it struck me that Paul is not even-handed as regards widows marrying in the Lord. This is all the more striking since he is soooo even handed throughout the rest of the passage! One of the commentators made the point that women were married off as young as twelve by their father so this would be the first time she was able to choose for herself. Yet would she? From GILL (?) we are aware that widows in a Jewish culture were expected to marry within a year. To remain single she would need to withstand cultural expectations. Would she be subject to an arranged marriage if her father still lived? Would relatives assist in arranging a marriage? If so Paul's particular emphasis on marrying in the Lord was a protective hedge against well meaning but pagan relatives.
 
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