1 Thessalonians 4-5 & 2 Thessalonians 2

[jbrodhagen]

Hello Everyone,

It seems to me when I read 1 Thessalonians 4-5 that it is referring to the Second Coming of Christ at the end of history, and yet 2 Thessalonians 2 seems to align more with the Olivet Discourse and the Roman Emperors Vespasian and Titus destroying the Temple in Jerusalem in AD 70.

Is it possible that Paul had the near fulfillment in mind with 2 Thessalonians 2, and the far fulfillment in mind in 1 Thessalonians 4-5?

Hoping to get some feedback on that thought from everyone's collective wisdom!

-Jon

 

[Jerusalem Blade]

Hello Jon,

Have you settled on an eschatological school of interpretation yet?

 

[jbrodhagen]

Hello Jon,

Have you settled on an eschatological school of interpretation yet?

Hello!

I've settled on a partial preterist postmillennial position, so I believe Matthew 24, and most of Revelation were fulfilled leading up to the destruction of the temple in AD 70. However, Matthew 25:31-46 I believe refers to the Final Judgment at the end of history, and it seems that 1 Thessalonians 5 aligns with that.

 

[Calvin Codger]

Is it possible that Paul had the near fulfillment in mind with 2 Thessalonians 2, and the far fulfillment in mind in 1 Thessalonians 4-5?

1 Thessalonians 4 refers to the second coming. 1 Thessalonians 5 refers to 70 AD. Paul is answering two different questions. I follow Keith Mathison on this.

In 1 Thessalonians 5, the language used mirrors the language used in the Olivet discourse. As you have pointed it out and I agree, Matt 24 refers to the AD 70 destruction all the up to Matt 25:31. In Matt 24, the phrase "thief in the night" is applied to our Lord's coming in judgment at 70 AD and is a bread crumb to 1 Thessalonians 5. Since it refers to 70 AD in Matt 24:43 then it almost certainly refers to 70 AD here in 1 Thessalonians 5:2. Also, we agree that the "day of the Lord" in 2 Thessalonians 2:2 refers to 70 AD and then the same language in 1 Thessalonians 5:2 would also point to 70 AD.

In 1 Thessalonians 4, Paul is assuring believers whose loved ones had died in Christ that they will be included in the future bodily resurrection at the second coming.

 

[MW]

Is it possible that Paul had the near fulfillment in mind with 2 Thessalonians 2, and the far fulfillment in mind in 1 Thessalonians 4-5?

That is how I take it. It is enticing to find a near fulfilment in chap. 5 on the basis of Paul's statement in chap. 2:16. But it fails at numerous points, not the least in that it would require "salvation" to be nothing more than a temporal deliverance. V. 10 says, "Who died for us, that, whether we wake or sleep, we should live together with him." This clearly ties "salvation" to the advent of chap. 4, making it an ultimate and final victory. It is noteworthy that every section of the epistle closes with a reference to the second coming.