sastark
Puritan Board Graduate
I noticed this interesting note in my 1599 Geneva Bible this last Lord's Day as the elder (filling in for our pastor) preached on the second half of Obadiah.
The text reads:
1:20 And the captivity of this host of the children of Israel shall possess that of the Canaanites, even unto Zarephath; and the captivity of Jerusalem, which is in Sepharad, shall possess the cities of the south.
And the note reads:
By the Canaanites, the Jews mean the Dutchmen, and by Zarephath, France, and by Sepharad, Spain.
Anyone care to elaborate and/or explain why this verse is referring to the Dutch, France and Spain? I'm really confused by this note. It also does not seem to be consistent with the rest of the notes in Obadiah.
The text reads:
1:20 And the captivity of this host of the children of Israel shall possess that of the Canaanites, even unto Zarephath; and the captivity of Jerusalem, which is in Sepharad, shall possess the cities of the south.
And the note reads:
By the Canaanites, the Jews mean the Dutchmen, and by Zarephath, France, and by Sepharad, Spain.
Anyone care to elaborate and/or explain why this verse is referring to the Dutch, France and Spain? I'm really confused by this note. It also does not seem to be consistent with the rest of the notes in Obadiah.