Jerusalem Blade
Puritan Board Professor
Tim said:
Sorry Tim, you’re right!
From the Dr. James R. Davila lecture noted above:
It would seem to confirm that Philo had some version of at least parts of the OT in Greek, the general consensus being that he had but the Pentateuch. The only thing we can be sure of was that he knew of the “claims of Aristeas” – and some say it was Philo himself who wrote it. It is certain he embellished the legend, the account of the “prophetic inspiration” of the 72. Is he to be counted as a source for a Christ-contemporary LXX? All we can say is he spoke of the Pentateuch, and, as Davila says, he did have an agenda to promote. What he actually had in his possession we cannot be sure of. Not what I would call a clear source.
I never said anything about Josephus. I am trying to get a clear answer to the question of whether Philo is a source for the existence of a Septuagint or not.
Sorry Tim, you’re right!
From the Dr. James R. Davila lecture noted above:
PHILO OF ALEXANDRIA (around the turn of the era; _Vita Mosis_ 2.25-44) also tells the story of a translation of the Pentateuch under Philadelphus with an outline very similar to Aristeas (it is quite likely he read the work). The king sends an embassy to Judea to get some translators; he treats them to feasting with witty and virtuous conversation and questioning; the translation takes place on the island of Pharos. But Philo seems to be the first to add that by prophetic inspiration all the translators produced exactly the same Greek text independently. He also tells of an annual festival at Pharos to his day which celebrated the translation. His agenda was to show that the LXX (which Philo used instead of the HB) was just as inspired as the original Hebrew.
It would seem to confirm that Philo had some version of at least parts of the OT in Greek, the general consensus being that he had but the Pentateuch. The only thing we can be sure of was that he knew of the “claims of Aristeas” – and some say it was Philo himself who wrote it. It is certain he embellished the legend, the account of the “prophetic inspiration” of the 72. Is he to be counted as a source for a Christ-contemporary LXX? All we can say is he spoke of the Pentateuch, and, as Davila says, he did have an agenda to promote. What he actually had in his possession we cannot be sure of. Not what I would call a clear source.