a mere housewife
Not your cup of tea
I think this is the proper forum for this question: I was wondering if it is legitimate to think that Christ's use of the cry from Psalm 22 'My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me' arose from His recognition of the fulfillment of other aspects of this Psalm ('they have pierced my hands and my feet', 'they divide my garments among them' etc). Did He use those words -- as is expressed of His actions in other places -- not only because they were a real expression of His agony, but in a special way, to fulfill the Scriptures? If so, it is legitimate to think of His hanging onto these particular words as another aspect of His faith on the cross, and to think of the comfort He must have derived even in that agony, in uttering that cry -- knowing that the Psalm ends in praise? (If so, how absolutely wonderful that David, so many years before, in such a dark trial, could have provided a comfort for our Saviour in His worst agony -- as our Saviour's communion surely must have been a comfort in some way for Him.)
Would it also be correct to see Him fulfilling the Scriptures in the way He refers the women to 'go tell His brothers', and v. 22 of the Psalm? I suppose my question is essentially about how legitimate it might be to see, throughout Christ's life, His actions and especially His words as consciously framed by the Scriptures; and to think 'behind' that of the faith expressed in such usage, and the comfort derived from it (because of knowing that the Scriptures He was fulfilling ended in deliverance and triumph)?
Could anyone add other places from the Old Testament that may have formed a conscious aspect of Christ's words and actions especially in the crucifixion and resurrection -- I would like to be able to read them in that light, if that is legitimate. Thank you.
Would it also be correct to see Him fulfilling the Scriptures in the way He refers the women to 'go tell His brothers', and v. 22 of the Psalm? I suppose my question is essentially about how legitimate it might be to see, throughout Christ's life, His actions and especially His words as consciously framed by the Scriptures; and to think 'behind' that of the faith expressed in such usage, and the comfort derived from it (because of knowing that the Scriptures He was fulfilling ended in deliverance and triumph)?
Could anyone add other places from the Old Testament that may have formed a conscious aspect of Christ's words and actions especially in the crucifixion and resurrection -- I would like to be able to read them in that light, if that is legitimate. Thank you.