bookslover
Puritan Board Doctor
It occurs to me that the repetitive nature of Psalm 119 (the 8 terms regarding the law, repeated very often, for example, along with other terms there) might be explained by what I could call biblical Hebrew's "low vocabulary ceiling" - that is, the language just does not have a large vocabulary compared to other languages (perhaps even Middle Eastern ones from Old Testament times). English, for example, has a vocabulary of about 900,000 words (excluding scientific and technical terms), I understand. Biblical Hebrew comes nowhere close to this, of course.
Would you agree with this? Is this a possible explanation for the repetitiveness of Psalm 119 (along with other parts of the Old Testament)?
Would you agree with this? Is this a possible explanation for the repetitiveness of Psalm 119 (along with other parts of the Old Testament)?