BibleCyst
Puritan Board Freshman
A while back, I posted a thread titled Accuracy of the KJV. It was a real interesting read! So now, I ask the same of the Geneva Bible. Putting aside differences in manuscripts, how accurate is the GB in comparison to the KJV and (to have something modern to compare to) the NASB?
I've noticed several passages in the GB that sound odd compared to the KJV reading. Specifically, John 1:1-4.
(Differences in bold.)
KJV: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
GB: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and that Word was God. This same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made. In it was life, and the life was the light of men.
These things may seem minor, but I've been reading the GB a lot this week and I keep noticing things like this.
I've noticed several passages in the GB that sound odd compared to the KJV reading. Specifically, John 1:1-4.
(Differences in bold.)
KJV: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
GB: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and that Word was God. This same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made. In it was life, and the life was the light of men.
These things may seem minor, but I've been reading the GB a lot this week and I keep noticing things like this.