JH
Puritan Board Sophomore
How is a paedobaptist to interpret Acts 2:41? — "Then they that gladly received his word were baptized"
This question was posed by a brother in this sub-forum 14 years ago, but I found the thread to have few posts with lackluster responses. This is often the go-to passage referred to about the promises of the covenant, and reference to baptism. But the only people I see baptized in the text are those who believed.
Will the interpretation be to not presume on the silence of the text, similar to the household credo arguments? It just seems to me, if there were any point in the New Testament where infants would be at least seemingly referred to as being baptized, it would be here in this very passage.
Blessings
This question was posed by a brother in this sub-forum 14 years ago, but I found the thread to have few posts with lackluster responses. This is often the go-to passage referred to about the promises of the covenant, and reference to baptism. But the only people I see baptized in the text are those who believed.
Will the interpretation be to not presume on the silence of the text, similar to the household credo arguments? It just seems to me, if there were any point in the New Testament where infants would be at least seemingly referred to as being baptized, it would be here in this very passage.
Blessings