Eoghan
Puritan Board Senior
Peter refers to "the promise" but does not actually identify what it is. Or does he? If you look back at verse 21 the prophesy of Joel says that everyone that calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. In the hebrew text of Joel (Joel 2:32) LORD is Jehovah.
Is this the reason that Peter is at pains to show that Jesus has been made both Lord and Messiah?
This would make sense if the confession that "Jesus is Lord" (1 Corinthians 12:3, Phillipians 2:11) is linked with the fullfillment of Joel 2:32 using Psalm 110:1 as the prophecy which identifies Jesus as Lord!
Is this the reason that Peter is at pains to show that Jesus has been made both Lord and Messiah?
This would make sense if the confession that "Jesus is Lord" (1 Corinthians 12:3, Phillipians 2:11) is linked with the fullfillment of Joel 2:32 using Psalm 110:1 as the prophecy which identifies Jesus as Lord!