Alex Foo
Puritan Board Freshman
Dear brothers and sisters
Hi, I have a question to ask concerning the interpretation of Acts 8:15.
This account is recorded shortly after Stephen's death, where the church dispersed for the preaching of the gospel (except the apostles).
Now, when Phillip is mentioned, is it the same Phillip of the twelve?
Then, when Philip preached the gospel to the gentiles (for the first time, in Samaria), the people heard the word and believed.
My question is, can we safely deduce that Philip is preaching repentance from sin and faith in Christ to the Samaritans? Did Philip miss the preaching part where they ought to be baptised in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit?
It appears that, in latter part of Acts 8, when Peter and John needed to go to Samaria in order that they may receive the Holy Spirit.
If we base on this passage alone, then can we deduce that it is a two-phase process, i.e., salvation first, Holy Spirit receipt later?
I understand that when it comes to systematic theology as a whole, the receipt of the Holy Spirit come together with the salvation of the soul. Romans is clear that we are baptised by one Spirit. If we're not so, we are not one of the family of God.
Would be glad if anyone could shed light on this, especially among the charismatics who like to cite this account to justify their pneumatology.
Thank you =)
Hi, I have a question to ask concerning the interpretation of Acts 8:15.
This account is recorded shortly after Stephen's death, where the church dispersed for the preaching of the gospel (except the apostles).
Now, when Phillip is mentioned, is it the same Phillip of the twelve?
Then, when Philip preached the gospel to the gentiles (for the first time, in Samaria), the people heard the word and believed.
My question is, can we safely deduce that Philip is preaching repentance from sin and faith in Christ to the Samaritans? Did Philip miss the preaching part where they ought to be baptised in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit?
It appears that, in latter part of Acts 8, when Peter and John needed to go to Samaria in order that they may receive the Holy Spirit.
If we base on this passage alone, then can we deduce that it is a two-phase process, i.e., salvation first, Holy Spirit receipt later?
I understand that when it comes to systematic theology as a whole, the receipt of the Holy Spirit come together with the salvation of the soul. Romans is clear that we are baptised by one Spirit. If we're not so, we are not one of the family of God.
Would be glad if anyone could shed light on this, especially among the charismatics who like to cite this account to justify their pneumatology.
Thank you =)