Adam & Sin

[unlearnedlearner]

Can someone help me understand Adam's sin and his will? For example, it is often argued by the Reformed, following Edward's, I believe, and which I agree, that man's will is free as long as he chooses his desire. So, when a sinner chooses sin of his own will, then he is acting consistent with his nature. If this is the case and Adam's nature was the imago dei, then how did he choose that which was contrary to his nature?

What am I missing?

God made Adam's nature very good,
Adam chooses that which is consistent with his nature,
Adam makes good chooses.

Problem: Adam sinned. What am I missing?

Thanks,

 

[toddpedlar]

Can someone help me understand Adam's sin and his will? For example, it is often argued by the Reformed, following Edward's, I believe, and which I agree, that man's will is free as long as he chooses his desire. So, when a sinner chooses sin of his own will, then he is acting consistent with his nature. If this is the case and Adam's nature was the imago dei, then how did he choose that which was contrary to his nature?

What am I missing?

God made Adam's nature very good,
Adam chooses that which is consistent with his nature,
Adam makes good chooses.

Problem: Adam sinned. What am I missing?

Thanks,

Adam's nature differed from ours in more ways than one - first, he was without sin - righteous by nature; but second, and more pertinent to your question, he was totally free - free not to sin, and free to sin. He was not bound by his nature to only obey perfectly. Christ, in his human nature, had the same freedom.

In other words, Adam was free to choose contrary to his nature. We are not, because our nature is of the fallen Adam. Adam could choose either the good or the bad. We, in our natural state, can only choose according to that nature.

Question back to you - when one is in a regenerate state, what change takes place? Are all that person's actions good, and righteous? Is that person, who is a new creation in Christ, infallibly good?

Just some quick thoughts - good question.

 

[alwaysreforming]

Another thing to think of concerning this same issue is that the angels fell, too.
Perhaps there's a correlation in how a perfect angel could fall to how a perfect man could fall.
One would think, though, without a sinful nature, there would be nothing within that would be attracted to sin in the first place. Perhaps there's a certain inherent weakness in being a "creature", especially compared to that eternal and infinite Holiness which is God's alone.
(I don't know, so I'm not postulating anything)

And maybe there's something to this word "deceived" that is attributed to Eve.

 

[larryjf]

Also, Adam was not confirmed in righteousness.
When we reach glory in heaven we will be confirmed in righteousness so there will no longer be a possibility to sin.
Theoretically if Adam never sinned he would have been confirmed in his righteousness and never again had the ability to sin.

So i think that his ability to choose and act in sin has a lot to do with his righteousness being an unconfirmed type.

I may be way off here, so anybody please feel free to correct me.

 

[unlearnedlearner]

Adam's nature differed from ours in more ways than one - first, he was without sin - righteous by nature; but second, and more pertinent to your question, he was totally free - free not to sin, and free to sin. He was not bound by his nature to only obey perfectly. Christ, in his human nature, had the same freedom.

Thanks! Can you help me understand this better regarding the relation of the nature and the will prior to the fall? How was the will seperate from the nature prior to the fall? Did Adam have "libertarian" freedom?

In other words, Adam was free to choose contrary to his nature. We are not, because our nature is of the fallen Adam. Adam could choose either the good or the bad. We, in our natural state, can only choose according to that nature.

Agree, but still confused how his will was "free" 'philosophically speaking, or exegetically.

Question back to you - when one is in a regenerate state, what change takes place? Are all that person's actions good, and righteous? Is that person, who is a new creation in Christ, infallibly good?

In reading up on the "four fold state", I would sy, "no", although he is able not to sin.

Thanks. My follow up questions aren't meant to be contentious, but really trying work this through with some Finneyites.

Thanks

 

[unlearnedlearner]

I am going to read through this now (suggested in another thread), so maybe Hodge will Shed some light.

 

[Greg]

Also, Adam was not confirmed in righteousness.
When we reach glory in heaven we will be confirmed in righteousness so there will no longer be a possibility to sin.
Theoretically if Adam never sinned he would have been confirmed in his righteousness and never again had the ability to sin.

So i think that his ability to choose and act in sin has a lot to do with his righteousness being an unconfirmed type.

A while back I asked the same question here. I think its worthy to note the difference between 'innocence' and 'perfection' when referring to Adam before the Fall. Prior to his sin, Adam possesed only the prior. Hypothetically speaking, had he not fallen in sin, he would have attained the former, not only for himself but for his posterity as well, which is exactly what Christ accomplished (Romans 5:12-19).