Puritan Board Graduate
I have often heard it said that sexual immorality before marriage is really adultery against your future spouse. I never quite understood how that works. It seems to me that adultery is a violation of the covenant of marriage. The covenant is bound in time; it begins when the two are married (or perhaps pledged to marry) and ends when one of the two parties dies. Adultery does not seem possible outside these bounds since there are no contractual obligations. I'm wondering if there is any biblical basis for this claim that I'm overlooking.