all men be saved

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Scott

Puritan Board Graduate
1 Tim. 2:3-4 reads: "This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth." There are a couple of different ways reformed tend to read this. One is that God intends all kinds of people to be saved. Another is that his prescriptive will wants all people to be saved (ie. takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked, etc.), even though his decreetive will decrees them to damnation.

For those who adopt that latter view, how would you explain the consistency? Any helpful analogies or illustrations?
 
I think the answer lies in God's holiness, in righteousness and judgment...

'Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right'.

He dwells in unapproachable light.

Praise God for His Grace.
 
Sounds like God desires things He doesn't get, eh? Is He the eternally blessed, eternally frusted God?
 
I Tim...

παντας trying to search for the exact meaning of this word 'all' and cannot find reference to the above exact word others like it but not literally the word παντας.

It's interesting too that Paul goes on to say 'For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.'

The word for 'all' here being παντων and can signify wholly or entirely.
 
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