Peairtach
Puritan Board Doctor
4 For he has somewhere spoken of the seventh day in this way: “And God rested on the seventh day from all his works.” 5 And again in this passage he said,
“They shall not enter my rest.”
6 Since therefore it remains for some to enter it, and those who formerly received the good news failed to enter because of disobedience, 7 again he appoints a certain day, “Today”, saying through David so long afterwards, in the words already quoted,
“Today, if you hear his voice,
do not harden your hearts.”
8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on. (Heb 4:4-8, ESV)
I believe that verses 9 and 10 are speaking about the New Testament Sabbath-keeping on the first day of the week that remains for God's people, and about Christ entering His rest on the first day of the week.
I'm just wondering whether in the above passage, the writer is positing an Old Testament "change" in the Sabbath day as part of his reasoning on this subject.
Although the day didn't change from the last day of the week, the day changed in the sense that when the Israelites entered the Promised Land, the day no longer pointed to that typological rest; that aspect of provisional Israelite typology in connection with the Sabbath fell away.
Psalm 95 was apparently strongly associated with the Sabbath liturgy of the synagogue (see Guthrie in Beale and Carson, Commentary on the NT use of the OT, pp 953-954) so the "Today" of which the writer speaks, as well as having a general reference to a time of Gospel opportunity and grace (e.g. 3:12-15), also would have a more specific reference in the minds of his hearers to the seventh day Sabbath.(i.e. 4:4-8)
The writer would be not only saying that another opportunity to enter God's rest was given to the Israelites after they entered the Land, but, more specifically, that another Sabbath day was in a sense appointed. The application to verses 9 and 10 would be clear/clearer.