InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
So, my question is, Are all presuppositions a priori, that is, independent of evidence and reason?
When an Atheist, made in the image of God through Adam, knowing a priori the existence of God, his conscience being bound to God's moral law, logic and rationality, suppresses the truth in unrighteousness, changing the truth of God for a lie, is he really presupposing the lie? I think not, unless God has put in him an a priori knowledge of that lie. In other words, when an Atheist is said to "presuppose" that the universe had its beginning by chance, he's not really presupposing it, he's knowingly making it up.
What think ye? Am I right, or just misusing the terms "presuppose" and "a priori," or what?
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Bonus question: Do we know a priori, in addition to the existence of God, that God is the rewarder of them that diligently seek him?
"But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him." (Hebrews 11:6)
When an Atheist, made in the image of God through Adam, knowing a priori the existence of God, his conscience being bound to God's moral law, logic and rationality, suppresses the truth in unrighteousness, changing the truth of God for a lie, is he really presupposing the lie? I think not, unless God has put in him an a priori knowledge of that lie. In other words, when an Atheist is said to "presuppose" that the universe had its beginning by chance, he's not really presupposing it, he's knowingly making it up.
What think ye? Am I right, or just misusing the terms "presuppose" and "a priori," or what?
------------------------------------------
Bonus question: Do we know a priori, in addition to the existence of God, that God is the rewarder of them that diligently seek him?
"But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him." (Hebrews 11:6)