InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
I ask this question in relation to Adam's fall:
Since Adam was clearly told by God to not break His commandment ("Ye shall not eat of [the tree in the midst of the garden], neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die."), he could not possibly NOT have knowledge of 'right' and 'wrong', or he had no ears. Besides, the Bible says that the knowledge of SIN is by God's law, that is, by the revelation of God's commandment(s). Yet, it is proclaimed that Adam had not the knowledge of 'good' and 'evil' before his fall, since it was only to be gained through breaking God's commandment (eating of the forbidden tree).
Evidently there is a distinction to be made between 'right' and 'good', and 'wrong' and 'evil'. What say ye?
Since Adam was clearly told by God to not break His commandment ("Ye shall not eat of [the tree in the midst of the garden], neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die."), he could not possibly NOT have knowledge of 'right' and 'wrong', or he had no ears. Besides, the Bible says that the knowledge of SIN is by God's law, that is, by the revelation of God's commandment(s). Yet, it is proclaimed that Adam had not the knowledge of 'good' and 'evil' before his fall, since it was only to be gained through breaking God's commandment (eating of the forbidden tree).
Evidently there is a distinction to be made between 'right' and 'good', and 'wrong' and 'evil'. What say ye?