PieterHKruger
Puritan Board Freshman
I would like to know how a paedobaptist would consistently keep the relationship between faith and baptism in both infant baptism and adult baptism. Would a paedobaptist contend that baptism is always prior to faith (where faith is perceived not as an event of a moment, but as a continuous virtue throughout life) as a sign and seal of a promise which is unto faith, with the requirement of faith before adult baptism being solely ecclesiologically motivated – i.e. faith is the only way by which a “heathen” can become part of the visible church, and being part of the visible church is the only requirement to be baptised? In that case, how would one account for the soteriological dimension of baptism suggested by texts such as Acts 22:16 and 1 Pet. 3:21? And also, why the requirement for the convert to (personally) let himself be baptised if baptism has no soteriological significance other than pointing to and confirming the witness of Scripture (as if Scripture is not sufficient in itself), demanding future faith?
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