Baptism for the dead in 1 Corinthians 15:29

Discussion in 'Exegetical Forum' started by Reformed Covenanter, Mar 18, 2019.

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  1. Reformed Covenanter

    Reformed Covenanter Puritan Board Doctor

    I heard 1 Corinthians 15:29 preached on in church yesterday morning (as part of a sermon on verses 20-34).[1] What is it to be "baptised for the dead" (Greek: βαπτιζόμενοι ὑπὲρ τῶν νεκρῶν)? For the Greek scholars among you, what is the significance of τῶν νεκρῶν being in the genitive plural?

    [1] The preacher was the son of the Australian Anglican theologian, Dr Peter Jensen.
     
  2. G

    G Puritan Board Junior

    :popcorn::coffee:
    What was your Pastor's conclusion?
    :popcorn:
     
    Last edited: Mar 18, 2019
  3. Romans922

    Romans922 Puritan Board Professor

    I'm not the greatest at greek, I have what I had out of seminary which is like a 5th grade greek education. :)

    ὑπὲρ is generally followed by an accusative or genitive. Depending on which one it usually indicates how ὑπὲρ is to be taken.

    With genitive, in basic form, it indicates: 1) representation/advantage (e.g. on behalf of, for the sake of); 2) Reference/respect (e.g. concerning, with reference to); or 3) Substitution (e.g. in place of, instead of).

    With accusative, 1) Spatial (e.g. over, above) or 2) Comparison (e.g. more than, beyond).

    Those are 'the rules', but in Greek, rules are made to be broken.
     
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  4. Reformed Covenanter

    Reformed Covenanter Puritan Board Doctor

    The preacher was the associate pastor as opposed to the rector of the parish. He was of the opinion that it basically refers to being baptised into the death of Christ, but he only mentioned his conclusion in passing.
     
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