steven-nemes
Puritan Board Sophomore
What, in brief, are some arguments in favor of cessationism? There are plenty on the web, I'm sure, but they are mostly very long articles that I am not currently up for reading...
And I know knowledge of Greek and Hebrew are properly helpful for debating this in a formal setting, but that's not what I'm doing--just small talks with friends at fast-food places and such.
I suppose I have a couple questions:
1. Is revelation from God ceased? Provide scriptural support.
2. Were "tongues" revelation from God? (If yes, then if (1) is true, then tongues have ceased also)
3. What is the meaning of "prophesy" and "[person x] prophecies" in 1 Corinthians?
I suppose some interesting verses to consider are Hebrews 1:1, which reads:
I don't know the Greek, or anything like that, but it seems to but the "but in these last days" indicates that:
(1) God is no longer speaking through the specially appointed prophets
(2) God has spoken (once for all?) through his Son
I'm sure this could take more analysis and such, but I suppose it's a start.
Anyone know of some arguments, scriptural or otherwise, for cessationism (which I take to be (a) the cessation of "special revelation" (which I take to be revelation apart from the existence and characteristics of God through nature) and (b) the cessation of special miraculous events, such as healings and such)?
And I know knowledge of Greek and Hebrew are properly helpful for debating this in a formal setting, but that's not what I'm doing--just small talks with friends at fast-food places and such.
I suppose I have a couple questions:
1. Is revelation from God ceased? Provide scriptural support.
2. Were "tongues" revelation from God? (If yes, then if (1) is true, then tongues have ceased also)
3. What is the meaning of "prophesy" and "[person x] prophecies" in 1 Corinthians?
I suppose some interesting verses to consider are Hebrews 1:1, which reads:
1 Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world.
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world.
I don't know the Greek, or anything like that, but it seems to but the "but in these last days" indicates that:
(1) God is no longer speaking through the specially appointed prophets
(2) God has spoken (once for all?) through his Son
I'm sure this could take more analysis and such, but I suppose it's a start.
Anyone know of some arguments, scriptural or otherwise, for cessationism (which I take to be (a) the cessation of "special revelation" (which I take to be revelation apart from the existence and characteristics of God through nature) and (b) the cessation of special miraculous events, such as healings and such)?