It seems that by inferring these Scriptures (Isaiah 63:17, 2 Chronicles 18:19), God is the ultimate cause of sins while man is the immediate cause of sins. Yet I am confused because of the two terms cause and author. What does it mean to be the cause (or in God's case, the ultimate cause) of sins? What does it mean to be the author of sins? An explanation in plain terms is highly appreciated!
Reference:
https://protestantreformed.wordpres...-sin-or-ultimate-cause-is-there-a-difference/
Reference:
https://protestantreformed.wordpres...-sin-or-ultimate-cause-is-there-a-difference/