G'day all,
Now, if we were to focus on C Hodge here, we will find some interesting things just waiting to be discovered. The last paragraph is the key, but Ive quoted the context for context's sake.
In answer to this question, it may be remarked in the first place that Augustinians do not deny that Christ died for all men. What they deny is that he died equally, and with the same design, for all men. He died for all, that He might arrest the immediate execution of the penalty of the law upon the whole of our apostate race; that He might secure for men the innumnerable blessings attending their state on earth, which, in one important sense, is a state of probation; and that He might lay the foundation for the offer of pardon and reconciliation with God, on condition of faith and repentance.
These are the universally admitted consequences of his satisfaction, and therefore they all come within its design. By this dispensation it is rendered manifest to every intelligent mind in heaven and upon earth, and to the finally impenitent themselves, that the perdition of those that perish is their own fault. They will not come to Christ that they may have life. They refuse to have Him to reign over them. He calls but they will not answer. He says, "Him that cometh to me, I will in no wise cast out." Every human being who does come is saved.
This is what is meant when it is said, or implied in Scripture, that Christ gave Himself as a propitiation, not for our sins only, but for the sins of the whole world. He was a propitiation effectually for the sins of his people, and sufficiently for the sins of the whole world. Augustinians have no need to wrest the Scriptures. They are under no necessity of departing from their fundamental principle that it is the duty of the theologian to subordinate his theories to the Bible, and teach not what seems to him to be true or reasonable, but simply what the Bible teaches. Charles Hodge, Systematic, vol, 2, pp558-9.
Now note here, Hodge says, Christ "gave" himself as a propitiation, not only for our sins, but for the sins of the whole world. Note then, this is a sufficient satisfaction for the sins of the whole world. Note too, his comment about wresting the Scripture. The implication is that no true Augustinian need to wrest the Scripture (ie convert holos kosmos into: the elect) in order to express his Augustinianism.
So, how could Christ "give" himself as a propitiation for the sins of the whole world?
Take care,
David
Now, if we were to focus on C Hodge here, we will find some interesting things just waiting to be discovered. The last paragraph is the key, but Ive quoted the context for context's sake.
In answer to this question, it may be remarked in the first place that Augustinians do not deny that Christ died for all men. What they deny is that he died equally, and with the same design, for all men. He died for all, that He might arrest the immediate execution of the penalty of the law upon the whole of our apostate race; that He might secure for men the innumnerable blessings attending their state on earth, which, in one important sense, is a state of probation; and that He might lay the foundation for the offer of pardon and reconciliation with God, on condition of faith and repentance.
These are the universally admitted consequences of his satisfaction, and therefore they all come within its design. By this dispensation it is rendered manifest to every intelligent mind in heaven and upon earth, and to the finally impenitent themselves, that the perdition of those that perish is their own fault. They will not come to Christ that they may have life. They refuse to have Him to reign over them. He calls but they will not answer. He says, "Him that cometh to me, I will in no wise cast out." Every human being who does come is saved.
This is what is meant when it is said, or implied in Scripture, that Christ gave Himself as a propitiation, not for our sins only, but for the sins of the whole world. He was a propitiation effectually for the sins of his people, and sufficiently for the sins of the whole world. Augustinians have no need to wrest the Scriptures. They are under no necessity of departing from their fundamental principle that it is the duty of the theologian to subordinate his theories to the Bible, and teach not what seems to him to be true or reasonable, but simply what the Bible teaches. Charles Hodge, Systematic, vol, 2, pp558-9.
Now note here, Hodge says, Christ "gave" himself as a propitiation, not only for our sins, but for the sins of the whole world. Note then, this is a sufficient satisfaction for the sins of the whole world. Note too, his comment about wresting the Scripture. The implication is that no true Augustinian need to wrest the Scripture (ie convert holos kosmos into: the elect) in order to express his Augustinianism.
So, how could Christ "give" himself as a propitiation for the sins of the whole world?
Take care,
David