WrittenFromUtopia
Puritan Board Graduate
Follow me for a second if you will ...
- The Jerusalem council met over a controversy related to Jewish customs and practices being imposed on the Gentiles.
- At this time, the Church was largely Jewish, with the Gentile mission being relatively new
- Jews were commanded at Pentecost to baptize, in order to bring one into the NC Church (Acts 2:41), not circumcize (which was the method to bring one into the OC congregation)
- The Jerusalem council allowed the Jews to continue circumcising their sons (Acts 21:21), but did not force it on the Gentiles, as their exclusive sign of the covenant was baptism (Remember Paul was accused of not allowing the Jewish Christians to continue circumcision, an accusation he denied)
- The Jews practiced both circumcision and baptism (at least until A.D. 70 when the "age of the OC" ended); the Gentiles practiced only baptism
- The Jews continued circumcising their children, as a "promise" related action, until the "end of the age", at least
So, would it not be right to conclude that we have, at this point, several children (Jewish boys) who were brought into the covenant community (the Church at this time, meeting in synagogues; cg James 2:2; 5;14) by circumcision (and likely baptism as well)?
- The Jerusalem council met over a controversy related to Jewish customs and practices being imposed on the Gentiles.
- At this time, the Church was largely Jewish, with the Gentile mission being relatively new
- Jews were commanded at Pentecost to baptize, in order to bring one into the NC Church (Acts 2:41), not circumcize (which was the method to bring one into the OC congregation)
- The Jerusalem council allowed the Jews to continue circumcising their sons (Acts 21:21), but did not force it on the Gentiles, as their exclusive sign of the covenant was baptism (Remember Paul was accused of not allowing the Jewish Christians to continue circumcision, an accusation he denied)
- The Jews practiced both circumcision and baptism (at least until A.D. 70 when the "age of the OC" ended); the Gentiles practiced only baptism
- The Jews continued circumcising their children, as a "promise" related action, until the "end of the age", at least
So, would it not be right to conclude that we have, at this point, several children (Jewish boys) who were brought into the covenant community (the Church at this time, meeting in synagogues; cg James 2:2; 5;14) by circumcision (and likely baptism as well)?