I am re-studying this first miracle.
Why does only John mention this first miracle? A first miracle seems noteworthy but is not found in the Synoptics, but only in John who wrote later (seeming to record those things excluded by the other Gospel writers).
Most Protestant commentaries speak negatively of Mary, but it appears that if Mary did not ask, Jesus would not have done this miracle. It seems to show Jesus' great respect towards Mary. Here is a Catholic's words:
It does seem that Mary was being considerate in the small things, knowing that her Son had power to help others and trying to bless the wedding couple. Overlooked in most sermons seems to be the faith of Mary here in that this was at the start of Christ's ministry and yet she is fully confident that He can help them.
If the words, "O Woman, what have I to do with you? My hour has not yet come," are entirely disrespectful, this hardly seems fitting for Jesus (who would highly respect his parents). How negative is this title "woman" anyway?
Was Mary trying to co-opt Jesus' powers to work her own influence (look at what my son can do for you)?
How significant are the numbers used in John's Gospel? Is it really important that John mentions the third day and six pots of water? A.W. Pink goes on and on about six being the number of imperfection and seems to make much of these numbers.
If you were preaching over this text, would your main theme be that Christ blesses a wedding? What other themes would you touch on? Jesus being the anti-type of Moses? Jesus not merely giving us enough, but overflowing blessings? Jesus blessing marital union?
How would I preach this text in a region where drunkenness is rampant?
Matthew Henry and Charles Spurgeon speak of the liberality in this miracle and the contrast between Christ and Moses. Here is Spurgeon:
Spurgeon has many great words on this text here: Wedding at Cana Sermon
Also, what does it mean that Jesus' hour had not yet come? If it did not come, why did He do the miracle? Did He set aside a divine mandate for the sake of His mother? Did she foul up His plan? What is this hour?
Any links, answers, quotes, sermons, etc, would be appreciated.
Why does only John mention this first miracle? A first miracle seems noteworthy but is not found in the Synoptics, but only in John who wrote later (seeming to record those things excluded by the other Gospel writers).
Most Protestant commentaries speak negatively of Mary, but it appears that if Mary did not ask, Jesus would not have done this miracle. It seems to show Jesus' great respect towards Mary. Here is a Catholic's words:
This first miracle shows us how powerful Mary is. Jesus would not have done anything about the wine running out if Mary had not told him to. He said that it was too early for Him to do a miracle, but Mary could make Him do it anyway. It is not like the bride and groom had done anything bad, it was just embarrassing for them. How loving Mary to think about helping in small things like that. Mary told the servants to do whatever Jesus told them (Jn 2:5).
It does seem that Mary was being considerate in the small things, knowing that her Son had power to help others and trying to bless the wedding couple. Overlooked in most sermons seems to be the faith of Mary here in that this was at the start of Christ's ministry and yet she is fully confident that He can help them.
If the words, "O Woman, what have I to do with you? My hour has not yet come," are entirely disrespectful, this hardly seems fitting for Jesus (who would highly respect his parents). How negative is this title "woman" anyway?
Was Mary trying to co-opt Jesus' powers to work her own influence (look at what my son can do for you)?
How significant are the numbers used in John's Gospel? Is it really important that John mentions the third day and six pots of water? A.W. Pink goes on and on about six being the number of imperfection and seems to make much of these numbers.
If you were preaching over this text, would your main theme be that Christ blesses a wedding? What other themes would you touch on? Jesus being the anti-type of Moses? Jesus not merely giving us enough, but overflowing blessings? Jesus blessing marital union?
How would I preach this text in a region where drunkenness is rampant?
Matthew Henry and Charles Spurgeon speak of the liberality in this miracle and the contrast between Christ and Moses. Here is Spurgeon:
Jesus Christ commenced the gospel dispensation, not with a miracle of vengeance, like that of Moses, who turned water into blood, but with a miracle of liberality, turning water into wine. He does not only supply necessaries, but gives luxuries...
Spurgeon has many great words on this text here: Wedding at Cana Sermon
Also, what does it mean that Jesus' hour had not yet come? If it did not come, why did He do the miracle? Did He set aside a divine mandate for the sake of His mother? Did she foul up His plan? What is this hour?
Any links, answers, quotes, sermons, etc, would be appreciated.