Scott1
Puritanboard Commissioner
Kaalvenist
But why are we talking about the invisible church, since it is the visible church and its membership (and the requirements thereof) which is under discussion? Why claim that one is "received into the church on the basis of the sovereign act of God, and the perfect life and shed blood of Jesus," when we are discussing the profession of faith which an individual must make before the visible church in order to be received as a member?
But we are talking about the visible and invisible church.
If I'm understanding this logic, we are saying that God sovereignly redeems a sinner and admits him into His Body (the invisible church) but then that fact is denied until he knows enough other doctrine and can meet the maturity requirements of a particular denomination to be acknowledged as such visibly.
I'm using the term "maturity requirements" in contrast to salvific ones.
Yes, we know and believe that salvation begins with God's eternal decree.
And the process of redemption involves a point in time where the Holy Spirit effectually calls (with an inner calling) that person unto faith in Christ alone.
The visible church can't recognize the person as a believer until that happens (a credible profession of faith from it).
So, if a person is saved on their "death bed," the church has no basis for determining that person a member of either the visible or invisible church until that time.
But here, it is as if we are saying, even though that has happened, until they vow to a series of things, perhaps even to a specific of a 2 elder or 3 elder view, we will not even attempt to recognize them as brothers.
I'm thinking of all kinds of limitations to that here- maybe an 8 year old not having the maturity to articulate this, someone where there is a language barrier, someone with a handicap of some sort, etc.
That means they are outside the covenant community and its benefits, responsibilities and privileges, including church discipline.
Where is that pattern in Scripture?
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