Colossians 2:16 and Exodus 20:8 - a question from a friend

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Pergamum

Ordinary Guy (TM)
A friend asked:

Should σαββάτων (Sabbath) in Colossians 2:16 also existing in the same inflected form in Exodus 20:8 (LXX) affect our theology of the Sabbath?

He believes that Christ did away with the Sabbath. And not just merely the multiple ceremonial "sabbaths."

I have referred him to Ezekial 45:17 and Hosea 2:11 where the formula of new moons, feast days, etc, seems to be used to denote the ceremonial laws established under Moses.

I am trying to think through what point or argument he is trying to make, and trying to respond. Any thoughts?
 

Pergamum

Ordinary Guy (TM)
I responded:

How does Colossians 2 line up with 2 Chron. 2:4;2 Chron. 31:3;Neh. 10:33;Ezek 45:17, as well as Galatians 4:10 which all seem to give us a formula of sabbaths and feast days, new moons, etc,..additional sabbath days in addition to the one Sabbath that was instituted at Creation (just like marriage). It seems that Paul distinguishes the ceremonial law from the moral. And it seems that the 10 commandments is in the category of moral law, coming to Moses as a solitary unit.

...are you saying that the KJV translation of Colossians 2 is errant and should be "sabbath" instead of plural "sabbaths?"

and also quotes Barnes' notes:

This is what “Albert Barnes' Notes on the Bible” has to say in regards to plural or singular: “Or of the Sabbath days - Greek, “of the Sabbaths.” The word Sabbath in the Old Testament is applied not only to the seventh day, but to all the days of holy rest that were observed by the Hebrews, and particularly to the beginning and close of their great festivals. There is, doubtless, reference to those days in this place, since the word is used in the plural number, and the apostle does not refer particularly to the Sabbath properly so called. There is no evidence from this passage that he would teach that there was no obligation to observe any holy time, for there is not the slightest reason to believe that he meant to teach that one of the ten commandments had ceased to be binding on mankind. If he had used the word in the singular number - “the Sabbath,” it would then, of course, have been clear that he meant to teach that that commandment had ceased to be binding, and that a Sabbath was no longer to be observed. But the use of the term in the plural number, and the connection, show that he had his eye on the great number of days which were observed by the Hebrews as festivals, as a part of their ceremonial and typical law, and not to the moral law, or the Ten Commandments. No part of the moral law - no one of the ten commandments could be spoken of as “a shadow of good things to come.” These commandments are, from the nature of moral law, of perpetual and universal obligation.”



He responded thusly:

...it seems maybe Albert Barnes was not aware of the way the LXX used Sabbath in Exodus 20:8.

...I see Col. 2:16 as making allusion to the ordinary weekly Sabbath in Ex. 20:8 because the Torah, itself, also groups together the ordinary weekly Sabbath with news moons and festivals. In Numbers 28-29, it speaks about the sacrifices that should be made daily, weekly (Sabbath), monthly (new moons), and yearly (festivals). Paul is following this same pattern of weekly, monthly, yearly in Colossians 2:16.

...I've looked before at the other references in the OT to Sabbaths, new moons, and festivals, and I think you have to understand them all in light of the Numbers 28-29 usage which is clearly speaking about the ordinary weekly Sabbath.
 
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