clawrence9008
Puritan Board Freshman
In trying to further my understanding of historic Reformed covenant theology, one thing that has been difficult for me to grasp is conditionality. I do not agree with the view that sees the Mosaic and Davidic covenants as being substantively a republication/reiteration of the Covenant of Works; however, I am not yet advanced enough in my understanding of covenant theology (or the OT as a whole) to understand some aspects of these covenants. I was reading Psalm 132 today, and came across Ps. 132:11-12, which seems to imply that obedience is a direct condition for the continuation of the Davidic kingship (“if your sons keep my covenant and my testimonies that I shall teach them, their sons also forever shall sit on your throne”). Other passages such as David’s final instructions to Solomon before dying (1 Kings 2:3-4) and Solomon’s dedication of the temple (1 Kings 8:25) seem to also speak to an element of conditionality in the covenant as well.
That being said, when I read of the covenant made with David originally (2 Sam. 7:11-16), it seems undeniable that it is an administration of the covenant of grace. Taking a look at what it says:
I have two potential answers that I’m not 100% sure are right:
1) This condition was given in order to point to Israel’s need for the perfect Son of David in Jesus Christ, as none of the subsequent kings could perfectly keep God’s law (which is clear from reading 1 & 2 Kings; even Hezekiah and Josiah failed in serious ways). Much like how the law is a schoolmaster to teach God’s people their sinfulness and need for the promised Offspring, Gal. 3:19-26.
2) Even if David’s sons failed to uphold this covenant (as they did, for even Solomon went astray), this could not prevent God from fulfilling His promise to him.
I don’t know, maybe I’m just overthinking this lol. Any thoughts?
That being said, when I read of the covenant made with David originally (2 Sam. 7:11-16), it seems undeniable that it is an administration of the covenant of grace. Taking a look at what it says:
The language is all of what God will do (ultimately fulfilled in Christ of course) and almost none of what God would do. A corresponding passage in Ps. 89:28-37 seems to support this — “I will not violate my covenant or alter the word that went forth from my lips. Once for all I have sworn by my holiness; I will not lie to David.” In fact, the very reason why Ethan the Ezrahite can lament over the state of the Davidic kingship is because the covenant promise is rooted in what God will do for David unconditionally, not what David (and his sons) must do for God.When your days are fulfilled and you lie down with your fathers, I will raise up your offspring after you, who shall come from your body, and I will establish his kingdom. He shall build a house for my name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son. When he commits iniquity, I will disciple him with the rod of men, with the stripes of the son of men, but my steadfast love will not depart from him, as I took it from Saul, whom I put away before you. And your house and your kingdom shall be made sure forever before me. Your throne shall be established forever (2 Sam. 7:12-16).
I have two potential answers that I’m not 100% sure are right:
1) This condition was given in order to point to Israel’s need for the perfect Son of David in Jesus Christ, as none of the subsequent kings could perfectly keep God’s law (which is clear from reading 1 & 2 Kings; even Hezekiah and Josiah failed in serious ways). Much like how the law is a schoolmaster to teach God’s people their sinfulness and need for the promised Offspring, Gal. 3:19-26.
2) Even if David’s sons failed to uphold this covenant (as they did, for even Solomon went astray), this could not prevent God from fulfilling His promise to him.
“If his children forsake my law and do not walk according to my rules, if they violate my statutes and do not keep my commandments, then I will punish their transgressions with the rod and their iniquity with stripes, but I will not remove from him my steadfast love or be false to my faithfulness” (Ps. 89:30-33).
I don’t know, maybe I’m just overthinking this lol. Any thoughts?
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