From what I understand, our NT sacraments (baptism and the Lord's Supper) come directly from the idea of covenant signs. Thus, baptism is linked to the OT sign of circumcision. I'm trying to think more deeply about the Lord's Supper in this manner. But it seems to not equate in an exact manner, since it seems that the sign of the Mosaic Covenant was actually not the Passover, but the Sabbath (Exodus 31:12-17). The Lord's Supper is a NT sacrament. But it's the fulfillment of the OT Passover, which was not necessarily, per se, the sign of the Mosaic Covenant, but rather seems to be a covenant MEAL. Is this making sense? How are we to think of these things? Was the Passover exclusively an OT covenant MEAL in the context of the Mosaic Covenant, but in the NT it is transformed into a sign as well as a meal? Thanks.