Cotton Mather
Puritan Board Freshman
Hi everyone. An acquaintance of mine who is a youth pastor in the United Methodist Church has recently embraced his so called "identity" as a homosexual. I've presented the gospel to this man many times, calling him to repentance and faith in the person of Christ. Last night, he asked me a question. "Can I be a homosexual and a Christian? More specifically, am I going to hell if I remain a homosexual." I replied that unless he repents of his error, receives and rests in the righteousness of Christ alone for salvation, and beckons God for a new heart, he will most certainly go to hell. He replied by asking me on what basis such a skewed view could be grounded in. I answered by saying that the inspired holy Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments unanimously reveal that homosexuality is a sin against God, a rebellion against God's heterosexually monogomous purposes for a man and a woman, and a blatant suppression of truth in unrighteousness. As a "liberal Christian" he believes that the Scriptures are outdated, bigoted, contextually conditioned, erroneous, and fallacious. According to Bill, God created him a homosexual. He didn't choose this lifestyle, he was born into it. Presumably, I have no objective basis on which to make my claims since he thinks that the Bible is erroneous. I felt as though I handled the situation somewhat well. I'm no skilled apologist, but did my best to defend the faith against this particular attack.
My question is this: As a pre-suppositionalist or evidentialist (I want to see both sides) how would we defend the objective authority of the Scriptures when someone like Bill outright denies the possibility of its divine origin? How can I defend the validity of Biblical truth over against Islam, Buddhism, Hinduism, etc. etc. Because this seems to be the difficulty every time. According to an unregenerate person, the Bible is about as true as any other ancient religious literary compilation. Now I'm obviously aware of how total depravity becomes significant in these squabbles. This guy is unregenerate, suppresses the truth, and can't understand divine truth due to the deadness of his heart. Apologetically though, how would any of you respond in this sort of situation? Thanks.
My question is this: As a pre-suppositionalist or evidentialist (I want to see both sides) how would we defend the objective authority of the Scriptures when someone like Bill outright denies the possibility of its divine origin? How can I defend the validity of Biblical truth over against Islam, Buddhism, Hinduism, etc. etc. Because this seems to be the difficulty every time. According to an unregenerate person, the Bible is about as true as any other ancient religious literary compilation. Now I'm obviously aware of how total depravity becomes significant in these squabbles. This guy is unregenerate, suppresses the truth, and can't understand divine truth due to the deadness of his heart. Apologetically though, how would any of you respond in this sort of situation? Thanks.