panta dokimazete
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
*editing to provide additional clarity*
Brethren, when I read passages like:
2 Peter 2:1
[1] But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing upon themselves swift destruction.
and
1 Timothy 4:10
[10] For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe.
In both verses, the scope includes the non-elect (I.e., false prophets and “all people” vs “those who believe”) who were “bought” and “saved” in some sense.
I can’t help thinking this is related to common grace, which I believe includes the grace God gave Adam when He did not completely destroy mankind at the Fall, or at the Flood. This seems to fall under the promise of Christ as the eternal savior of the elect and, generally, the temporal savior of all mankind.
That is, I’d like to understand if Christ’s death, in some way, as the 2nd Adam and federal head of all Mankind in some sense procures the common grace evident in the fact that all Mankind did not get destroyed at the Fall or in the Flood.
I'm proposing that the promise of Christ's sacrifice is all that graciously held back the Father from totally destroying all Mankind at the Fall and the Flood. I propose that the death of Christ as it relates to the eternal covenant procured both the provision of putting off the total and just destruction of all Mankind, as well as a provision for purchasing the elects' sin debt. And I believe that is what those verses allude to.
Did Christ’s death not only pay for the sins of the elect and deliver eternal life as a component of the eternal covenant, but also pay for the non-elect in the sense He is “saving” them temporarily as “vessels of wrath” (Rom 9) for judgment?
Thanks for your considered response.
Brethren, when I read passages like:
2 Peter 2:1
[1] But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing upon themselves swift destruction.
and
1 Timothy 4:10
[10] For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe.
In both verses, the scope includes the non-elect (I.e., false prophets and “all people” vs “those who believe”) who were “bought” and “saved” in some sense.
I can’t help thinking this is related to common grace, which I believe includes the grace God gave Adam when He did not completely destroy mankind at the Fall, or at the Flood. This seems to fall under the promise of Christ as the eternal savior of the elect and, generally, the temporal savior of all mankind.
That is, I’d like to understand if Christ’s death, in some way, as the 2nd Adam and federal head of all Mankind in some sense procures the common grace evident in the fact that all Mankind did not get destroyed at the Fall or in the Flood.
I'm proposing that the promise of Christ's sacrifice is all that graciously held back the Father from totally destroying all Mankind at the Fall and the Flood. I propose that the death of Christ as it relates to the eternal covenant procured both the provision of putting off the total and just destruction of all Mankind, as well as a provision for purchasing the elects' sin debt. And I believe that is what those verses allude to.
Did Christ’s death not only pay for the sins of the elect and deliver eternal life as a component of the eternal covenant, but also pay for the non-elect in the sense He is “saving” them temporarily as “vessels of wrath” (Rom 9) for judgment?
Thanks for your considered response.
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