Did Paul Kill Christians? If So, Not Charged Is Just?


Puritan Board Freshman
This is a strange question, but a friend brought it up recently. It does not seem proven that Paul killed anyone, however he was in attendance at Stephen's murder giving his approval. But his persecutions seemed like they were at least violent (Acts 9:1).

Which brings me to the next question: if he indeed was killing people, or torturing people, why did he not turn himself in after conversion, or was what he did somehow legal under Roman law (considering the Jews had special status)? If it was illegal in Roman law - something I doubt based on the Acts accounts of his Roman courts experience - why was he not prosecuted?


Puritanboard Brimstone
Local governments had a large degree of latitude in enforcing local laws and customs. The whole point Paul makes is that he had official sanction for his actions. Thus he didn’t “violate the criminal code” in his action.