Did the Sabbath Move To Sunday?

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psycheives

Puritan Board Freshman
Dear brothers and sister in Christ,

I understand we have the Lord's Day on Sunday and the Sabbath historically was the 7th day, so Saturday. In America, we have a two day weekend and so are free to hold both.

The Reformed tradition (esp Presbyterians (WCF) and Puritans) has usually argued that the Sabbath day has moved from Saturday to Sunday. I'm wondering how they overcome all the verses in the Bible (after Jesus rose) that still call the 7th day the Sabbath? If the Sabbath moved, wouldn't all the verses following Christ's resurrection that referred to "the Sabbath" have to now mean the 7th day? How does one who holds Sunday is the new Sabbath overcome that this does not appear to be reflected in scripture?

Thank you for your insights :)
 
There are eleven verses, total, that have "sabbath" in them, after the gospels in English terms.

Of these, one is an obvious cultural-reference, Act.1:12, "a sabbath-day's journey."

Two refer to the Jewish practice of reading the Scriptures "every Sabbath," Act.13:27 and 15:21.

Six refer to Paul's custom of preaching Christ to the Jews, in their religious gatherings, on the day they knew as their Jewish Sabbath; Act.13:14; Act.13:42; Act.13:44; Act.16:13; Act.17:2; Act.18:4.

The word "sabbath" would have a real cultural ambiguity-issue in the first-century church. The term is not the most important thing.


Doctrinally, there are two statements in the epistles that use the term. One makes a negative statement, the other a positive one.

Col.2:16 is referring to the Jewish liturgical calendar, and says it no longer applies.

Heb.4:9 states that there remains a Sabbath-keeping for the people of God. (not same Gk. term, but one found also in the LXX)


It is also believed by some that Mt.28:1, stating both "the end" of the Sabbaths (plural), and the first of (literally) "Sabbaths," is an explicit reference to the change of day. This argument should be entertained cautiously, because the term "Sabbath" could be used in reference to a whole week (or a seven), which is oriented to the chief day of the bunch. Thus our translations almost all make no reference to the day of the Sabbath, at least in the second case. The sense given is: close of week (also end of the Jewish Sabbath day) juxtaposed with the dawning of the first (day) of the week. But it is true that the word chosen is "Sabbath," for what its worth.

The "sabbath" term is elsewhere translated "week" in the gospels, Mk.16:1,2,9; Lk.18:12; Jn.20:1,19; and afterward, Act.20:7; 1Cor.16:2.
SIX of those eight uses of "sabbath" the term is embedded in the phrase, "first of the week."


If the ultimate question is: "Why doesn't the NT just spell it out: there's a new day of worship, a change from the seventh to the first?" we reply that there are various ways for the NT to present doctrine. The change of the day of worship, while preserving the true nature of the Sabbath (consider how Jesus rehabilitates the Sabbath from Pharisaic abuse), is well taught by Jesus himself, first in his didactic manner; and then in his practical manner--by which Jesus (who is God) comes specially to meet with his people on the first day, and that repeatedly, after his resurrection.

We evidently see how the disciples are habituated into their new practice--not by a fiat (and as Jews, they continue to meet with their synagogue partners on the seventh day) but by a transition. God clearly wishes to meet with his people now on the first day, since Jesus comes to them for the occasion; the day celebrates the success of Christ's saving work. New emphasis now falls on Redemption (Dt.5:15) above Creation (Ex.20.11).
 
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One of the ways of looking at this is understanding that the Old Testament sabbath had civil law (given Israel) and ceremonial law connected with the underlying moral law command ("cease" from working in order to prioritize worship all the day).

In the New Testament, in a sense, our Lord fulfilled some of the purpose of the sabbath, redemption by resurrecting on what the early church called, the Lord's Day. (See Revelation 1:10).

That is a powerful analogy as to why the day was changed.

It is as if the resurrection of our Lord is commemorated every week, on "The Lord's Day."
 
The saving work of God in Christ is far greater than the work of creation, or of the redemption of the Israelites from bondage in Egypt, which were both commemorated by the OT Sabbath.

So it is most appropriate that the particular day changed to commemorate God's great work of new creation and redemption in Christ.

The particular day of the week upon which the Sabbath rest is held does not enter into the moral essence of the commandment, but is one of God's positive laws, which may be appropriately changed along with a new covenant administration.

The NT Sabbath continues, like the OT Sabbath did, to look forward to a greater eschatalogical rest which God entered after creating the world, which Jesus has already entered, and which we shall yet enter.

The change of day is also just another eloquent testimony to the reality of Christ's resurrection.

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One of the things that I have been reflecting on is how John the Baptist is the greatest because he could point metaphorically and literally to the Messiah. His fulcrum on which history turns. The whole of the OT looks forward to this, we look back to it both in the past tense and the present (and I suppose future). He is the focus of our worship and I think it should come as no surprise that we honor His resurrection by meeting on the first day of the week.

The enormity of John's testimony outshines Moses and Elijah!
 
Thank you for your insightful posts. Bruce, your post was excellent in addressing my exact concern and the use of the Sabbath word. As I am beginning to learn Greek, I will look into this further and at specific verses to see which use. Thank you for taking the time. This REALLY helps. :) I am reading Edwards' article now also.

Would it make any sense for one to argue that there are two days now? I was told historically many Jewish Christians held two days early on. The 7th day Sabbath and the Lord's Day? I see why the Lord's Day was established but is there direct evidence (aside from that Mt 28 reading) that the 7th day Sabbath is no longer in effect? (I refer to the day of rest from creation/moral law, not including the ceremonial Sabbath observances of the Mosaic Law).
 
Would it make any sense for one to argue that there are two days now?...The 7th day Sabbath and the Lord's Day?

Are there two peoples-of-God, or just one? Eph.2:14. Who's authority makes the day what it is? Who "calls the meeting?" God calls the meeting, and he picks the day. The early church passed through a transition period, part of which was shedding the

Right at first, in the beginning of Acts, the people are meeting round-the-clock, every single day. It's a honeymoon moment, an intense moment for the church. And what happens? The pattern set by Jesus before his Ascension, where he shows up in their midst on the first day of the week, continues. He just comes to them (or brings them to himself) by the power of the Spirit.

It is the presence of Christ in our midst (Mt.18:20; 1Cor.14:25) that makes worship what it is. We make the room ready, as it were, Mk.14:15; but he gives the order. We come at his summons, Heb.12:22-24.

To say that there are two days (take your pick?) is counterintuitive to the purpose of the day, a foretaste of heaven. The change of day is appropriate to a shift toward the eschatological, or the consummation and the purpose and telos (end) of the day and of creation generally: namely, the ultimate worship gathering of all the saints together, in glory, to give glory to God. Which is a kind of "commencement" or (new) beginning.
 
Would it make any sense for one to argue that there are two days now?

The old Sabbath day being placed at the end of the week was somewhat more backward-looking, pointing backwards to a remembrance of the creation and the redemption from Egypt, although it also encouraged the Israelites in their wilderness wanderings to look forward to the rest of Canaan, a picture of the God's rest that He invited them into, and it encouraged all OT saints to look forward to entering God's eternal Heavenly Eschatalogical Rest.

The new Sabbath, being placed on the first day of the week, has a more forward-looking aspect, since the new creation has commenced in principle, with the resurrection of Christ, and our redemption has already been accomplished in Him and we are in the eschatalogical "already........not yet." At the same time as we look forward to joining Christ in His Father's Rest, which He entered on the first day of the week - as we rest in Him our whole lives through, even as we are in the midst of a warfare - we also look backwards on the new Sabbath to what He accomplished.

Colossians 2:16 may indicate the supercession of the old seventh day Sabbath (?) - along with the ceremonial days and festivals - as does Christ's resurrection, His pattern of behaviour in the forty days after His resurrection, His baptism of the NT Church into Himself with the Holy Spirit on the first day of the week, the example of the apostles meeting on the first day of the week, and the testimony of Hebrews 3 and 4 which indicates that there remains a Sabbath keeping to the New Testament people of God, not two. Also Christ's meeting with John on the Lord's Day, which could only be the first day.





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