Division of the Ten Commandments

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py3ak

Unshaven and anonymous
Staff member
John Brown puts it like this:

Q. Why do they [Papists] so conceal the second commandment?
A. Because it condemns their images and superstition.

(Questions and Answers on the Shorter Catechism, p.220).
 

VirginiaHuguenot

Puritanboard Librarian
William Ames says with respect to the tenth commandment:

14. Those who divide this last commandment about covetousness in two, one part about coveting the house and the other about coveting the wife and other objects have forsaken all reason in this matter. They are forced either to abandon the second commandment of the first table or to turn it into a needless appendix of the first commandment so that they may in some way retain the number ten. Or rather, as is evident with many of them, obscuring the force of the second commandment in order with some show to separate from it themselves and their superstitions, they tear apart this tenth commandment. They have no choice about which is the ninth and which the tenth commandment because in the repetition of the law, Deut. 5:27, coveting the wife is put before coveting the house. They cannot say it is clearly wrong to join together these two types of coveting when they themselves in explaining the decalogue always join or rather confuse the ninth and tenth commandments. Last, the very words of the decalogue plainly show that it is one commandment, when they forbid one act (You shall not covet) and have a common object (Anything that is your neighbor's).
 

JM

Puritan Board Doctor
Why would the Jews make 1 and 2 the same commandment? When was the division added by the Jews, before Christ or after?
 

Reformed Covenanter

Cancelled Commissioner
John Brown puts it like this:

Q. Why do they [Papists] so conceal the second commandment?
A. Because it condemns their images and superstition.

(Questions and Answers on the Shorter Catechism, p.220).

That is it in a nutshell; I think AA Hodge once said "if the Papists be not idolaters, the sin of breaking the second commandment has never been committed."
 

BJClark

Puritan Board Doctor
JM;

Why would the Jews make 1 and 2 the same commandment? When was the division added by the Jews, before Christ or after?

I don't believe the Jews divided them, I believe it was the RCC..
 
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