Been trying to look this up and saw some brief discussions on it. I had never thought of this before, but was looking at a learning Koine Greek site recently that was adamant that what we have in the NT is actually what Jesus said (not translated from Aramaic, unless otherwise stated like when He says "My God, My God why have You forsaken me" at the Cross.
What really got to me was listening to how Roman Catholics debate the Greek words: "petra" and "petros" which obviously are explosive words to them in terms of the legitimacy of the papacy, as their apologists say that the word for rock in Aramaic is the same exact word if Jesus said that, so that there is no differentiation there, and it's the translation that is wrong.
Just curious for more thoughts as this has been on my mind of late, as I know the Hellenization of Rome was well-known, but was it the de facto language that Jesus used, especially when speaking to the crowds?
What really got to me was listening to how Roman Catholics debate the Greek words: "petra" and "petros" which obviously are explosive words to them in terms of the legitimacy of the papacy, as their apologists say that the word for rock in Aramaic is the same exact word if Jesus said that, so that there is no differentiation there, and it's the translation that is wrong.
Just curious for more thoughts as this has been on my mind of late, as I know the Hellenization of Rome was well-known, but was it the de facto language that Jesus used, especially when speaking to the crowds?