Bill The Baptist
Puritan Board Graduate
I saw a discussion on Facebook about whether or not God decrees everything that comes to pass, including sin (which I am not disagreeing with), but someone cited John 1:3 as evidence that God "created" sin since sin exists and everything that exists was made by him. I am just wondering if this is a proper application of this verse and whether or not this would contradict the reformed confessions that state God is not the author of sin. It struck me as a bit weird to use this verse in this way. What do you think?